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280 Multiple choice questions

  1. ___ is anything written or printed which is offered to prove or disprove facts pertaining to the case. It includes bank records, medical records, or a certified copy of a subject's driving history. (pg. 84)
  2. In deciding whether the reasonable suspicion or probable cause standards have been met, courts review all factors known to the officer at the time of the incident. This is known as the _________ test. (pg. 42)
  3. The ________ must be directed to a person or agency with specific jurisdiction over the location of the search. (pg. 44)
  4. Many agencies in Florida prefer the expression ___ to refer to the process of interrogating or questioning a suspect; however, Florida courts routinely use the term "interrogation." (pg. 58)
  5. _____ is any crime committed for which the maximum penalty is death or incarceration in a state correctional facility for more than one year. (pg. 35)
  6. The standards set forth in the Constitution and court decisions or interpretations of the Constitution handed down by U.S. District and Supreme Courts; identifies the powers and limitations of each branch of the U.S. Government. (pg. 30)
  7. is a description of the suspect, the suspect's name, and any additional information that would help apprehend the suspect.
  8. ___ is failure to use due or reasonable care in a situation that results in harm to another. (pg. 88)
  9. ___ is a civil proceeding in which the law enforcement agency asks the court to transfer ownership of the property from the defendant to the government. The government may then sell the property at auction or use the property for law enforcement purposes. (pg. 51)
  10. _____ has varying penalties, including up to life imprisonment in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $15,000, or both. (pg. 35)
  11. ___ means a building or conveyance of any kind, including any attached porch, whether such building or conveyance is temporary or permanent, mobile, or immobile, which has a roof over it and is designed to be occupied by people lodging therein at night. (pg. 65)
  12. ___ bars the state from prosecuting an individual after a certain period of time has elapsed since the criminal act occurred. (pg. 83)
  13. _____ is a fair probability or reasonable grounds to believe that someone committed a crime, based on the totality of circumstances. (pg. 41)
  14. Reasonable suspicion is sometimes called_____. (pg. 39)
  15. Indirect evidence is also known as ___. (pg. 84)
  16. 1. The offender intentionally and unlawfully threatened, either by word or act, to do violence to the victim.
    2. At the time, the offender appeared to have the ability to carry out the threat.
    3. The act of the offender created in the mind of the victim a well-founded fear that the violence was about to take place.
    4. The assault was made with a deadly weapon without the intent to kill, or the assault was made with the intent to commit a felony. (pg. 67)
  17. The space of ground and outbuildings immediately surrounding a structure___. (pg. 46)
  18. A law enforcement officer may make a probable cause arrest without a warrant under the following circumstances:___ (pg. 52)
  19. 1. The act was of a nature to corrupt the public morals.
    2. The act outraged the sense of public decency.
    3. The act affected the peace and quiet of persons who witnessed it.
    4. The person charged engaged in brawling or fighting.
    5. The person charged engaged (pg. 69)
  20. ___ occurs when one person or entity is held liable for the negligent actions of another person
    even though the first person or entity was not directly responsible for the injury. (pg. 91)
  21. ___ means not in accordance with nature or with normal feelings or behavior. (pg. 72)
  22. There are four elements to the Miranda decision:___ (pg. 57)
  23. ___ is the principle that the officer must determine whether the elements of a criminal act are present and have probable cause to believe that the person to be charged committed the crime. (pg. 61)
  24. Evidence presented in court can be placed into one of three primary categories:___ (pg. 84)
  25. The maximum penalty for violating ______ is a fine of $500 or incarceration in a county jail for a period of up to 60 days and/or both. (pg. 37)
  26. Prosecution may begin ___ after the commission of a capital offense, a life felony, or a felony that resulted in death. (pg. 83)
  27. These types of searches generally do not require warrants because they are for regulatory purposes and can be conducted by administrative or law enforcement personnel. (pg. 49)
  28. Before a person may be found guilty of a crime and sentenced, the prosecution must
    present evidence sufficient to prove guilt of each element of the crime_____. (pg. 43)
  29. 1. Whoever, without being authorized, licensed, or invited, willfully enters or remains in any structure or conveyance, or, having been authorized, licensed, or invited, is warned by the owner or lessee of the premises, or person authorized by the owner or lessee, to depart and refuses to do so.
    2. The structure or conveyance was in the lawful possession of the owner, lessee, or
    other person authorized by the owner or lessee. (pg. 65)
  30. _____ is the presentation of a number of individuals, which may include a known suspect, to a victim or witness in a non-suggestive manner for the purpose of identification. (pg. 43)
  31. In ______ the Supreme Court held that "when the police conduct a search in objectively reasonable reliance on binding appellate precedent, the exclusionary rule does not apply." (pg. 45)
  32. The facts and circumstances must support the suspicion that a person committed a crime, is committing a crime, or is about to commit a crime. (pg. 39)
  33. ___ pertains to the legal action that a person takes to resolve a private dispute with another person. (pg. 31)
  34. Their purpose is to ensure that individual rights are not infringed upon by the government. (pg. 32)
  35. ___ means to engage in a course of conduct directed at a specific person which causes substantial emotional distress to that person and serves no legitimate purpose. (pg. 71)
  36. ___ means intelligent, knowing, and voluntary consent and does not include coerced submission. (pg. 72)
  37. (1) An offender commits a felony. (2) After committing the felony, another person maintains or assists the offender. (3) While giving assistance, the person knows that the offender committed the felony. (4) The person assists with the intent of helping the offender avoid or escape detection, arrest, trial, or punishment. (pg. 79)
  38. Questioning that prolongs the detention but is not justified by the purpose of the investigative stop is unreasonable under... (pg. 41)
  39. In ______ a police officer saw a white pill on the console of a car and, thinking it was ecstasy, seized it. Testing proved the officer was correct. (pg. 46)
  40. A probable cause affidavit is also called an ___. (pg. 53)
  41. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny any person within its jurisdiction of the equal protection of the laws. (pg. 33)
  42. BOLO stands for... (pg. 40)
  43. ___ are designed to compensate for the actual property damage, harm, or injury that
    the plaintiff suffers. (pg. 89)
  44. An ___ is defined as a person who aids or contributes in the commission or concealment of a crime. (pg. 79)
  45. ___ means intentionally, knowingly, and purposely. (pg. 74)
  46. _____ the principle that an officer may search a vehicle or other mobile conveyance without a warrant if there is probable cause to believe that the vehicle contains contraband or evidence of criminal activity. (pg. 47)
  47. ___ generally do not require a warrant due to the setting or special conditions. Subjects of
    this type of search include students, public schools, people in government offices, government property (such as desks, lockers, and vehicles), people engaged in certain businesses or licensed activities, and people on probation or parole. (pg. 49)
  48. It generally requires (1) probable cause that the suspect committed a serious crime, (2) immediate or continuous pursuit of the suspect, and (3) probable cause that the suspect is in the premises that is being entered without a warrant. (pg. 47)
  49. ___ is the process where a creditor may take possession of the collateral after default without a court order, if the repossession can be done without breach of the peace.
  50. ___ is information that is allowed in court, while proof is the effect produced by that information. (pg. 84)
  51. _____ is the standard used to determine if a criminal defendant is guilty. Based on the facts of the case, there is no other reasonable explanation than that defendant committed the crime. (pg. 43)
  52. _____ are also known as noncriminal offenses. (pg. 35)
  53. A ______ occurs when the government intrudes into a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy. (pg. 44)
  54. 1. The offender willfully entered upon or remained in the property.
    2. The property was owned by or was in the lawful possession of the owner, lessee, or other person authorized by the owner or lessee.
    3. Notice against entering or remaining was given, either by actual communication to the offender or via posting, fencing, or cultivation of the property.
    4. The offender's entering or remaining in the property was without permission, expressed or implied, of the owner, lessee, or any other person authorized to give that permission. (pg. 66)
  55. _____ broadly describes criminal or noncriminal acts that are punishable under Florida law. (pg. 35)
  56. A ___ is a civil wrong in which the action or inaction of a person or entity violates the rights of another person or entity. (pg. 87)
  57. A ________ is a court order that authorizes law enforcement to conduct a search and seizure. (pg. 44)
  58. _____ is a presentation of a series of photographs to a victim or witness in a non-suggestive manner for the purpose of identifying a suspect. (pg. 43)
  59. ___ is an offense when either the person did some act toward committing the crime that went beyond just thinking or talking about it; or the person would have committed the crime except that someone or something prevented him or her from doing so, or the person failed. (pg. 79)
  60. ______ is formed by the decisions of the court system (the judicial branch). (pg. 31)
  61. ______ is best known for prohibiting compelled self-incrimination. It also requires grand jury indictment for capital crimes and prohibits double jeopardy and deprivation of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. (pg. 33)
  62. Mobile conveyance search are sometimes called... (pg. 47)
  63. ____ are given a higher degree of constitutional protection than areas that do not have such improvements. (pg. 46)
  64. ___ occurs when a law enforcement officer uses undue persuasion or fraudulent means to induce a person to commit a crime he or she would not have otherwise committed. It can be used as a legal defense in these cases. (pg. 82)
  65. Set forth in Article VI, ______ states that when laws conflict, federal law generally overrules state and local law. (pg. 32)
  66. 1. The offender intentionally touched or struck the victim against his or her will or caused bodily harm to the victim.
    2. The offender, in committing the battery,
    a. intentionally or knowingly caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement to the victim, or
    b. used a deadly weapon, or
    c. knew or should have known that the victim was pregnant. (pg. 68)
  67. ___ are spouses, former spouses, persons related by blood or marriage, persons who are presently residing together as if a family, or who have resided together in the past as if a family, and persons who are parents of a child in common regardless of whether they have been married. With the exception of persons who have a child in common, the family or household members must be currently residing or have in the past resided together in the same single dwelling unit. (pg. 68)
  68. ___ refers to actual objects which may be offered to prove facts about a case. (pg. 84)
  69. The Bill of Rights was originally intended to restrict the actions of the federal government only. __________ expanded the application of the Bill of Rights to state and local governments as well. (pg. 33)
  70. 1. The offender knowingly did one of the following:
    a. took possession of or carried away merchandise
    b. altered or removed a label or price tag from merchandise
    c. transferred merchandise from one container to another
    d. removed a shopping cart from a merchant's premises
    2. The offender intended to deprive the merchant of the possession, use, benefit,
    or full retail value of the merchandise or shopping cart. (pg. 63)
  71. Often, a suspect who is in custody will voluntarily give information even when not solicited through questioning. These statements, known as ___. (pg. 58)
  72. ___ means the suspect is deprived of freedom in a significant way. (pg. 57)
  73. _____ is sometimes described as a hunch or gut feeling based on law enforcement training and knowledge. (pg. 39)
  74. ___ is a defense against liability that allows an officer to react instinctively to sudden peril without being held to the same legal standard of care as he or she would have been had there been time to reflect upon the circumstances. (pg. 94)
  75. The duration of a _____ is limited to the time reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose of the stop.
    An investigative detention may become an arrest even if the officer does not initially intend to make the arrest. (pg. 41)
  76. A __ is any person who has information about some element of the crime or about evidence or documents related to the crime. He or she may have heard statements or observed events before, during, or after the crime. He or she may have information about a piece of physical evidence associated with the crime or knowledge of some document related to the crime. (pg. 78)
  77. ___ means a person 60 years of age or older who is suffering from the infirmities of aging as manifested by advanced age or organic brain damage, or other physical, mental, or emotional dysfunctioning, to the extent that the ability of the person to provide adequately for the person's own care or protection is impaired. (pg. 75)
  78. In addition to maintaining order, laws also serve to... (pg. 30)
  79. _____ carries a maximum penalty of one year in a county jail, a fine of $1,000, or both. (pg. 36)
  80. A ___ is usually created by statute or contract. (pg. 88)
  81. ___ defines most criminal offenses and requires some forbidden act by the offender. To qualify as an act, the offender's bodily movement must be voluntary. (pg. 61)
  82. ___ is defined legally as any mental disorder so severe that it prevents a person from having legal capacity and excuses the person from criminal or civil responsibility. (pg. 83)
  83. ___ parallels the U.S. Constitution. (pg. 30)
  84. The term ___ means neglecting to perform what the law or duty requires. (pg. 92)
  85. A ______ occurs when the government affects a
    person's right to have or control his or her property, usually by physically taking it. (pg. 44)
  86. An ___ is a suspect or defendant's claim that he or she was not present when the alleged act was committed. (pg. 81)
  87. In ___ , the United States Supreme Court held that all law enforcement use of force cases are to be judged by an objective reasonableness standard based upon the Fourth Amendment.(pg. 55)
  88. If the property stolen is valued at less than $___, the offender commits the misdemeanor of petit theft. (pg. 63)
  89. _______ guarantees the right to be informed of the nature of the charges, receive counsel, undergo a speedy and public trial, confront witnesses, and face an impartial jury. (pg. 33)
  90. ___ are the items used by the defendant to commit the crime. (pg. 85)
  91. Apply only within the jurisdiction of the governmental entity that enacted them. (pg. 31)
  92. _____ refers to the steps that must be followed to protect an individual's rights during a criminal justice process. (pg. 33)
  93. ___ occurs when an officer is found guilty of committing a crime and is sentenced to incarceration or other penalties. (pg. 87)
  94. A search incident to arrest may not be conducted unless there is a ___. (pg. 50)
  95. ___ is the legal phrase for the link between the breach of duty and the harm caused (damages). (pg. 89)
  96. When an officer acts or purports to act in the performance of official duties under any law, ordinance, or regulation, he or she is acting under ___. (pg. 90)
  97. 1. The offender injured or damaged property.
    2. The property belonged to someone else.
    3. The injury or damage was done willfully and maliciously. (pg. 74)
  98. _____ are included in Satutory law. (pg. 30)
  99. Under criminal law principles, there are four basic classifications of intent: (pg. 61)
  100. _______ must be aware of conflicting rulings and follow the case law in their own jurisdiction. (pg. 31)
  101. After an officer has developed probable cause, he or she has three choices:___ (pg. 53)
  102. _____ are punishable by monetary fines or something other than incarceration. (pg. 35)
  103. ___ refers to the range of reasonable and foreseeable activities that an employee does while carrying out the employer's business. (pg. 92)
  104. ___ are unplanned, spontaneous statements that occur during or after a shocking event, or having suffered an injury, and may be relied upon for truthfulness. (pg. 85)
  105. ___ means any unmarried person under the age of 18 who has not been emancipated by order of the court and who has been found or alleged to be dependent, in need of services, or from a family in need of services; or any married or unmarried person who is charged with a violation of law occurring prior to the time that person reached the age of 18 years.
  106. 1) a duty to act with care, (2) breach of the duty to act, (3) causation or proximate cause, and (4) damages. (pg. 88)
  107. An investigative stop is also known as a_____. (pg. 39)
  108. If officers execute a search warrant they believe to be valid and a court later determines the warrant to have a legal error, any seized evidence may still be admitted, according to the.... (pg. 45)
  109. Two search types that are often considered exceptions to the search warrant requirement are not technically searches because the person does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the place to be searched. Those are searches of... (pg. 46)
  110. R.E.P. stands for... (pg. 45)
  111. In other words, for ___ crimes the only thing that needs to be proved is that the suspect intentionally committed the illegal act. (pg. 62)
  112. 1. The offender solicited a person to commit a certain offense.
    2. During solicitation, the offender commanded, enc uraged, hired, or requested the other person to engage in specific conduct which would constitute the commission of the offense or attempt to commit the offense. (pg. 79)
  113. Simple negligence cannot give rise to criminal
    charges; it is only when that negligence is gross or flagrant that it reaches the level of
    criminal responsibility called ___. (pg. 62)
  114. ______ prohibits unreasonable search and seizure and generally requires a warrant signed by an independent magistrate (judge). (pg. 33)
  115. ______ protects individuals from governmental abuse of power and defines law enforcement's authority to act. (pg. 32)
  116. This defense requires that the person committing the act must reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or great bodily harm to self or a third party is to commit the crime. (pg. 82)
  117. Theft crimes are initially divided between... (pg. 63)
  118. ___ arises in cases in which the officer committed an intentional or a negligent tort in violation of the employing agency's orders or policies. (pg. 91)
  119. ___ also establishes that an individual has "no duty to retreat" when faced with imminent harm, "has the right to stand his or her ground," and may "meet force with force, including deadly force when he or she reasonably believes it is necessary to do so to prevent death or great
    bodily harm." (pg. 82)
  120. An ___ is a written list of all valuable property in a vehicle. (pg. 49)
  121. _____ is any criminal offense with a maximum incarceration penalty in a county jail of up to one year. (pg. 36)
  122. Corpus delicti is the Latin term meaning the ___. (pg. 61)
  123. ______ provide a forum for the parties to resolve disputes through legal action. (pg. 31)
  124. Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of a misdemeanor of the first degree. (pg. 83)
  125. 1. The offender took the motor vehicle from the victim or custody of the victim.
    2. Force, violence, assault, or putting in fear of violence was used in the course of the taking.
    3. The taking was with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive the victim of his or her right to the vehicle or any benefit from it. (pg. 65)
  126. ______ is the agent of the people, not their master. (pg. 33)
  127. A ___ is a person or entity which suffers an injury as a result of a crime. The injury may involve physical harm, loss of money, loss of property, or damage to property. (pg. 78)
  128. If the suspect requests an attorney,the officer may not re-initiate the interrogation... (pg. 60)
  129. ___ means that the breach caused the harm. (pg. 89)
  130. is derived from the common law idea that the king and his agents can do no wrong. (pg. 92)
  131. ____ searches do not require probable cause, reasonable suspicion, or even mere suspicion. (pg. 48)
  132. _____ are punishable by incarceration and classified as either felony or misdemeanor. (pg. 35)
  133. ______ guarantees the right to bear arms. (pg. 33)
  134. The two elements required for a lawful pat down or frisk are_____. (pg. 40)
  135. are other forms of social control.(pg. 30)
  136. Once the suspect has been advised of his or her Miranda rights, a ___ is required before questioning may commence. (pg. 59)
  137. A person is not criminally responsible if, at the time of the alleged crime, the defendant, by reason of a mental disease or defect, (1) does not know of the nature or consequences of his or her act; or (2) is unable to distinguish right from wrong. (pg. 83)
  138. Any contraband an officer can see can be seized without a warrant as long as three conditions are met: (1) the officer is lawfully present in the place where he or she sees the item, (2) the item is in plain sight, and (3) the officer has probable cause to believe that the item is contraband or crime evidence. (pg. 46)
  139. The burden of proof in civil cases is ___. (pg. 43)
  140. 1. The offender intentionally and unlawfully threatened, either by word or act, to do violence to the victim.
    2. At the time, the offender appeared to have the ability to carry out the threat.
    3. The act of the offender created in the mind of the victim a well-founded fear that the violence was about to take place. (pg. 67)
  141. If the borrower fails to pay the loan as agreed (called a ___), the creditor is entitled to possession of the collateral.
  142. A person who is ___ intoxicated is aware of ingesting the intoxicant, either alcohol or a controlled substance. (pg. 81)
  143. _____ is the highest class of felony. The penalty for offenses in this class is death or life imprisonment in a state correctional facility without the possibility of parole. (pg. 35)
  144. A ___ is an unlawful interference with the fundamental rights of another person, such as the rights to due process and equal protection under the law. (pg. 89)
  145. ___ means transporting, soliciting, recruiting, harboring, providing, enticing, maintaining, or obtaining another person for the purpose of exploitation of that person. (pg. 77)
  146. _____ carries a maximum penalty of 60 days in a county jail, a fine of $500, or both. (pg. 36)
  147. ___ is anything that is illegal to possess. (pg. 85)
  148. ___ means the giving or receiving of the body for sexual activity for hire, but excludes sexual activity between spouses. (pg. 74)
  149. ___ is a statement other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the trial or hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. (pg. 85)
  150. When a person is lawfully arrested and taken into custody, he or she may be searched without a warrant. (pg. 49)
  151. (D.A.R.E.) program stands for... (pg. 51)
  152. A ______ is a sworn, written statement by a law enforcement officer establishing certain facts and circumstances to justify an arrest. This document is used by the judge to determine if there was sufficient probable cause to detain the individual. (pg. 53)
  153. ___ means that the defendant unreasonably failed in the duty he or she was obligated to perform. (pg. 89)
  154. 1. The offender was intoxicated and endangered the safety of another person or property.
    2. The offender was intoxicated or drank any alcoholic beverage in a public place or in or upon a public conveyance and caused a public disturbance. (pg. 69)
  155. In ___, the Court decided that whenever a law enforcement officer questions a suspect in custody, the officer must advise the person of certain Constitutional rights. These rights include the right to remain silent and the right to have an attorney present when being questioned by law enforcement. (pg. 57)
  156. ___ means oral, anal, or vaginal penetration by, or union with, the sexual organ of another or the anal or vaginal penetration of another by any other object; however, sexual battery does not include an act done for a bona fide medical purpose. (pg. 71)
  157. ___ requires an expectation of a particular result, which requires a heightened mental state of intent to commit the act. (pg. 62)
  158. Criminal law recognizes two types of intoxication. (pg. 81)
  159. ___ are enacted by a municipal (city) or county government. (pg. 31)
  160. A ___ will be issued by the court to the sheriff, who is then authorized to evict the tenant and put the landlord in possession of the residence after a prescribed notice period.
  161. A ___ is the person believed to have committed a crime. (pg. 78)
  162. An offense for which the only penalty may be a fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty is _____. (pg. 36)
  163. _____ carries a maximum penalty of five years in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $5,000, or both. (pg. 36)
  164. Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of a misdemeanor of the second degree or a noncriminal offense. (pg. 83)
  165. ___- when a person believes that his or her conduct does not violate the law—is generally not recognized as a defense to criminal liability. (pg. 81)
  166. ___ is a common legal term describing a person's authority to take reasonable steps, including the use of force (except deadly force) to the extent that a person reasonably believes is necessary to protect his or her possessions from trespass or theft or to stop these acts. (pg. 82)
  167. ___ are damages awarded in addition to actual damages when the defendant acted with recklessness, malice, or deceit. They are intended to punish the defendant for his or her act and to warn others from doing the same act. (pg. 89)
  168. The _____ involves a situation in which officers may make a warrantless entry in order to ensure their own safety or that of the public. (pg. 48)
  169. _______ prohibits excessive bails and fines and cruel and unusual punishment. (pg. 33)
  170. ___ are certain emergencies such as the case of evidence destruction, an emergency scene, or a fresh pursuit that justifies a warrantless entry. (pg. 47)
  171. We can identify the powers and limitations of each branch through ___. (pg. 30)
  172. Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of a felony of the first degree. (pg. 83)
  173. ___ is a legal defense in limited circumstances when it negates an essential element of the crime, such as the ability to form criminal intent in the commission of certain offenses. (pg. 81)
  174. The most common type of property repossession is that of ___.
  175. ___ is present when an intentional act harms an unintended second victim. (pg. 62)
  176. ___ is a court order that entitles the creditor to possess
    collateral after the borrower defaults.
  177. ___ shall not be deemed or construed to mean the failure by the alleged victim to offer physical resistance to the offender. (pg. 72)
  178. The most common deadly force incidents involve the use of a ___. (pg. 56)
  179. ___ protects "government officials . . . from liability for civil damages insofar as their conduct does not violate clearly established statutory or constitutional rights of which a reasonable person would have known." (pg. 93)
  180. A _____ may be conducted without a warrant even if there may be time to obtain a warrant. (pg. 47)
  181. The three elements that comprise a Fourth Amendment "search" are thus... (pg. 45)
  182. 1. The offender knowingly and unlawfully obtained or used or endeavored to obtain or use the property of another.
    2. The offender did so with intent, either temporarily or permanently, to deprive
    victim of his or her right to the property or any benefit from it with the intent
    to deprive the victim of its use, or appropriate the property of the victim to his
    or her own use or to the use of any person not entitled to it. (pg. 63)
  183. The most recognized types of liability are ___ and ___. (pg. 87)
  184. If the suspect invokes only his or her right to remain silent, the officer may re-initiate the interrogation after.... (pg. 60)
  185. There are two primary types of evidence:___ (pg. 84)
  186. a ___ is a written order that may be issued by a law enforcement officer in lieu of a physical arrest requiring a person accused of violating the law to appear in court at a specified date and time. It may be used only under limited circumstances for misdemeanor offenses, municipal or county ordinance violations, and criminal traffic violations. (pg. 53)
  187. the U.S. Supreme Court, in _______ said that the courts are not required to consider an officer's motive for stopping a vehicle as long as the officer had an objective basis for the stop. (pg. 41)
  188. The part of statutory law that defines unacceptable behavior and government prosecution of those who commit them. (pg. 30)
  189. ___ means a building of any kind, either temporary or permanent, which has a roof over it, together with the curtilage thereof. (pg. 65)
  190. The officer must ensure that the defendant understands his or her rights, taking into account once identified concerns relating to the defendant's age, national origin, education, circumstances of the advising of rights, mental or physical disability, and whether or not the defendant is under the influence of an intoxicating substance. (pg. 59)
  191. ___ recognizes that a criminal defendant will be judged on his or her present ability to assist counsel by participating in the criminal defense. (pg. 83)
  192. _____ involves relying on the collective knowledge of other officers when taking law enforcement action. (pg. 42)
  193. Black's Law Dictionary defines a ___ as an act that the law makes punishable. (pg. 63)
  194. The rules of the society, which developed naturally, have been codified by being written down. (pg. 30)
  195. _____ protects the freedom of speech, press, peaceful assembly, and religion. (pg. 33)
  196. 1. The offender intended to commit a burglary or trespass.
    2. The offender had in her or her possession a tool, machine, or implement that he or she intended to use or allow to be used in the commission of the burglary or trespass. (pg. 66)
  197. _____ is to a civil case what a criminal statue is to a criminal case. (pg. 31)
  198. All people stand equal before the law and therefore share certain rights, according to the _____. (pg. 32)
  199. ___ requires an inference or presumption to establish a fact. (pg. 84)
  200. Not all crimes have an identifiable victim. In victimless crimes, the victim is the ___. (pg. 78)
  201. The Supreme Court has ruled that evidence obtained by the government in violation of the Constitution cannot be used as evidence in court. This is known as the ___. (pg. 45)
  202. ______ is the body of law that allows for the creation of public regulatory agencies. (pg. 31)
  203. _____ carries a maximum penalty of 30 years in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $10,000, or both. However, certain ______ specifically carry a maximum penalty of life imprisonment in a state correctional facility. (pg. 35)
  204. ___ is any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death of one family or household member by another. (pg. 68)
  205. Is a form of social control or a method of encouraging people to behave in a certain way. (pg. 30)
  206. Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of any other felony. (pg. 83)
  207. Sections 932.701—932.706, F.S., gives law enforcement agencies the authority to seize and forfeit certain property known as ___. (pg. 51)
  208. _____ occurs when a law enforcement officer locates a suspect a short time after the commission of an offense and attempts to get a one-on-one identification of the suspect in the field by a victim or witness. (pg. 43)
  209. _____ is punishable by a maximum of 15 years in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $10,000, or both. (pg. 36)
  210. 1. The offender loitered or prowled in a place at a time or in a manner not usual for law-abiding
    2. Such loitering and prowling was under circumstances that warranted justifiable and reasonable alarm or immediate concern for the safety of persons or property in the vicinity. (pg. 66)
  211. An ___ is a court order authorizing law enforcement to take the individual named on the warrant into custody to answer for charges specified in the warrant. (pg. 52)
  212. ____ is consciously doing an act that the person knew or should have known was likely to cause death or great bodily injury. (pg. 62)
  213. ___ means a person's social security number, official state-issued or United States-issued driver license or identification number, alien registration number, government passport number, employer or taxpayer identification number, Medicare or food assistance account number, bank account number, credit or debit card number, and medical records. (pg. 74)
  214. _____ is the standard of justification needed to support a legal Terry stop or investigative
    detention. (pg. 39)
  215. ___ is witness statements tending to prove or disprove facts about the case. (pg. 84)
  216. There are two main categories of damages:___ (pg. 89)
  217. 1. The offender entered and/or remained in a structure or conveyance owned by or in the possession of the victim.
    2. The offender did not have the permission or consent of the victim, or anyone authorized to act for the victim, to enter and/or remain in the structure or conveyance at the time.
    3. At the time of entering and/or remaining in the structure or conveyance, the offender had a fully formed, conscious intent to commit the crime that is listed in the charge. (pg. 66)
  218. The elements of ___ include questioning initiated by law enforcement that is directly or indirectly intended to elicit an incriminating response. (pg. 58)
  219. The law presumes that a search without a warrant is invalid; however, there are a number of exceptions which require probable cause:___ (pg. 46)
  220. where officers were justified in entering a house because they had an objectively reasonable basis to believe that a subject was going to commit suicide. Once within the house, they discovered a murder victim while securing the subject to prevent his suicide. (pg. 48)
  221. ___ is a child 12 years of age or younger who is alleged to have committed a violation of sexual battery, prostitution, a lewd and lascivious act, an act of sexual performance by a child, or an act of obscenity, or any violation of law or delinquent act involving juvenile sexual abuse
  222. In ___ the United States Supreme Court struck down a law which allowed law enforcement officers to use whatever force was necessary to stop fleeing felons. (pg. 56)
  223. ___ is responsibility for a wrongful act or an omission that injures a person or property and most often involves negligence. (pg. 87)
  224. 1. The intent of the offender was that the offense (object of conspiracy) would be committed.
    2. In order to carry out the intent, the offender agreed, conspired, combined, or confederated with the person(s) alleged to cause (object of conspiracy) to be committed either by them, or one of them, or by some other person. (pg. 80)
  225. is not a defense to a crime when the suspect decides not to pursue the crime because of unforeseen difficulties in completing the crime or when detection of the criminal activity is imminent. (pg. 79)
  226. ____ are the three branch structure. (pg. 30)
  227. In ____ the Court ruled that a law enforcement officer may frisk the exterior clothing of someone lawfully detained if the officer has reasonable suspicion to believe that the person is armed.
  228. When using an ___ defense, the accused alleges that he or she suffered from a mental disorder at the time the crime was committed and that the disorder caused the commission of the crime. (pg. 83)
  229. ___ imposes criminal liability on defendants when they did not intend for a behavior to cause the resulting harm. (pg. 62)
  230. The Supreme Court has noted "two historical rationales for the search incident to arrest exception: ___ (pg. 49)
  231. 1. The defendant committed at least one of the following:
    a. intentionally inflicted physical or mental injury upon the victim
    b. committed an intentional act that could reasonably be expected to result in physical or mental injury to the victim
    c. actively encouraged another person to commit an act that results in or could reasonably have been expected to result in physical or mental injury to the victim
    2. The victim is under the age of 18. (pg. 76)
  232. ___ is a legal doctrine that permits a law enforcement officer to make an arrest of a fleeing suspect who crosses jurisdictional lines. It is an exception to the general rule that a Florida officer's arrest powers are limited to the jurisdiction of the agency that employs the officer. (pg. 54)
  233. _______ are court-imposed decisions are based on the court's interpretation of constitutional provisions, and they clarify the meaning of a statute or rule as applied to a specific set of facts. (pg. 31)
  234. Their purpose is to form a contract between the people of the United States and the United States government that spells out the responsibilities and authority of the three branches of government. (pg. 32)
  235. When the officer stops the vehicle due to an equipment violation but really wants to investigate other, more serious criminal activity. (pg. 41)
  236. If an in-custody suspect, in response to Miranda warnings, invokes his right to counsel, law enforcement may re-initiate contact with the suspect if the suspect experiences a break in police custody of at least... (pg. 60)
  237. ___ is evidence that points to the suspect's or defendant's innocence in a trial. (pg. 81)
  238. 1. The offender actually and intentionally touched or struck the victim against the victim's will.
    2. The offender intentionally caused bodily harm to the victim. (pg. 67)
  239. ___ means a wicked, lustful, or unchaste, licentious, or sensual intent on the part of the person doing the act. (pg. 72)
  240. A search incident to arrest may only be conducted when two requirements have been met. (pg. 50)
  241. A person may legally use force to defend against the use of force by another. (pg. 82)
  242. The standard of justification required to make an arrest or conduct a search is_____. (pg. 41)
  243. In administrative proceedings, the burden of proof is ___. (pg. 43)
  244. ___ is based primarily on English common law. (pg. 30)
  245. ___ include items which are illegal to possess, items used in the commission of a felony, and items purchased with the profits of felonious activity. (pg. 51)
  246. means to engage in a course of conduct to communicate, or cause to be communicated,
    words, images, or language by or through the use of electronic mail or electronic communication, directed at a specific person, causing substantial emotional distress to that person and serving no legitimate purpose. (pg. 71)
  247. ___ are not designed to search for evidence but to protect the arrested person's property and to protect the officer from accusations of theft. (pg. 49)
  248. Commonly recognized sources for officers to rely on include:... (pg. 42)
  249. 1. The offender actually and intentionally touched or struck the victim against the victim's will.
    2. The offender caused the victim great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement. (pg. 67)
  250. ___ is a legal defense that is used when the accused does not possess the mental state required to commit a criminal offense because of a reasonably mistaken belief about the facts relating to the circumstances. (pg. 81)
  251. An officer can only make an ____ if the officer has reasonable suspicion that the person stopped was committing, is committing, or is about to commit a law violation. (pg. 39)
  252. ___ refers to the legal requirements that must be met before a jury is allowed to see or hear about the evidence. (pg. 85)
  253. ___ means any motor vehicle, ship, vessel, railroad vehicle or car, trailer, aircraft, or sleeping car. (pg. 65)
  254. The law recognizes four standards of legal justification:... (pg. 38)
  255. 1. The offender took the money or property from the victim or from custody of the victim.
    2. The property taken was of some value.
    3. The victim was or became aware of the act in the course of the taking.
    4. The taking was with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive the victim
    of his or her right to the property or any benefit from it. (pg. 64)
  256. ___ is that which proves a fact without an inference or presumption and which, if true in itself, conclusively establishes that fact. (pg. 84)
  257. _____ holds that evidence gathered with the assistance of illegally obtained information must be excluded from trial. (pg. 45)
  258. An officer may identify a ___ directly by observing that person commit the crime, indirectly through statements or observations that witnesses provide, through the suspect's own statements, or by learning of the person's identity based on evidence collected while investigating the crime. (pg. 78)
  259. The two main components of due process are ______. (pg. 33)
  260. The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution comprise the _______. (pg. 33)
  261. ___ means the consent is unequivocal, specific, and intelligently given and more than mere acquiescence in the face of a claim of lawful authority. (pg. 48)
  262. ___ means wrongfully, intentionally, without legal justification or excuse, and with the knowledge that injury or damage will or may be caused to another person or the property of another person. (pg. 74)
  263. This rule allows the officer to seize the contraband even if it does not feel like a weapon. (pg. 40)
  264. An ___ is defined as depriving a person of his or her liberty by legal authority. (pg. 52)
  265. _____ occurs when an officer comes into voluntary contact with a citizen under circumstances in which a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about his or her business. It involves no coercion, no detention, and therefore is no Fourth Amendment seizure. (pg. 39)
  266. ___ is defined as purposely doing what the law declares to be a crime, whether the person's purpose was to commit the crime or to meet its outcome. (pg. 61)
  267. ___ intoxication occurs when an individual is unaware of ingesting the intoxicant, is tricked into ingesting it, or is following doctor's orders. (pg. 81)
  268. Four additional search warrant exceptions require less than probable cause:___ (pg. 48)
  269. ___ include the following offenses: treason, murder, manslaughter, sexual battery, carjacking, home invasion robbery, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnapping, aggravated assault, aggravated battery, aggravated stalking, aircraft piracy, unlawful throwing placing or discharging of a destructive device, any other felony which involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual. (pg. 82)
  270. Florida law defines ___ as any force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm. (pg. 56)
  271. _____ is the fair and consistent enforcement of the law. (pg. 33)
  272. are the objects obtained by the defendant as a result of committing the crime. (pg. 84)
  273. ___ is a common legal term that describes the justifiable use of force that is necessary to protect oneself. This same legal term also describes the justifiable use of force necessary for the defense of others. (pg. 82)
  274. 1. The offender took the money or property from the victim or from custody of the victim.
    2. Force, violence, assault, or putting in fear of violence was used in the course of the taking.
    3. The property taken was of some value.
    4. The taking was with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive the victim
    of his or her right to the property or any benefit from it. (pg. 64)
  275. Criminal negligence is sometimes referred to as ___. (pg. 62)
  276. Penalties of imprisonment may be extended for defendants who have been classified as _____. (pg. 36)
  277. ___ is written and enacted by Congress, state legislatures, or local governing authorities in response to a perceived need. (pg. 30)
  278. 1. The offender entered the dwelling of the victim.
    2. At the time that the offender entered the dwelling, he or she intended to commit robbery.
    3. While inside the dwelling, the offender did commit robbery. (pg. 65)
  279. _______ are rules created by an appellate court that officers are required to follow unless a higher court changes the rule. (pg. 31)
  280. If the defendant who helped another person or persons commit or attempt to commit a crime and must be treated as if he or she had done all the things the other person or persons did. (pg. 79)