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261 Matching questions

  1. Law
  2. Transferred intent
  3. The Second Amendment
  4. A second-degree misdemeanor
  5. Personal identification information
  6. Proximate cause
  7. Voluntary abandonment
  8. The photographic array
  9. The Amendments
  10. Solicitation
  11. Criminal offenses
  12. Search
  13. Sate of Florida
  14. Tort
  15. Exculpatory evidence
  16. Criminal negligence
  17. Grand Theft and Petit Theft
  18. Attempt
  19. "Custodial interview"
  20. Government + Intrusion + REP
  21. Intent
  22. Evidence
  23. Spontaneous statements
  24. Mere suspicion
  25. within three years
  26. Duress or coercion
  27. Disorderly Conduct/Breach of Peace
  28. Defense of property
  29. Conveyance
  30. The courts
  31. The Sixth Amendment
  32. Reasonable expectation of privacy
  33. Officers
  34. within four years
  35. Due process clause
  36. Fenced and posted fields
  37. Trespass—On Property Other than a Structure or Conveyance
  38. A show-up
  39. Breach of duty
  40. Forcible felony
  41. Writ of replevin
  42. Incident to Arrest
  43. Constitutional Law
  44. Dwelling
  45. BOLO
  46. Mental incompetence
  47. Corpus delicti
  48. Voluntary and Involuntary
  49. The American Legal System
  50. Probable cause
  51. Loitering or Prowling
  52. Conspiracy
  53. Crime
  54. The Fourteenth Amendment
  55. Notice to appear
  56. Maliciously
  57. Whren v. U.S. (1996)
  58. Writ of possession
  59. A misdemeanor
  60. Physical or real evidence
  61. Protect ownership of property, regulate certain businesses, and raise revenue
  62. Noncriminal offenses
  63. Indirect evidence
  64. Carroll doctrine
  65. Qualified immunity
  66. Testimonial evidence
  67. Felony
  68. Ordinances
  69. Inventory searches
  70. Sawyer v. State (2003)
  71. Unnatural
  72. General, specific, transferred, and criminal negligence.
  73. Aggravated Assault
  74. Probable cause affidavit
  75. Violent career criminals, habitual felony offenders, or habitual violent felony offenders
  76. Prostitution
  77. Plain touch/feel doctrine
  78. Specific intent
  79. A third-degree felony
  80. within two years
  81. Suspect
  82. M'Naughten rule
  83. Case law
  84. The Eighth Amendment
  85. Be On the Look Out
  86. Civil, Criminal, Administrative, and Regulatory laws
  87. Robbery by Sudden Snatching
  88. Admissibility of evidence
  89. Mere suspicion, reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
  90. Mobile conveyance search
  91. Voluntary
  92. The Fourth Amendment
  93. Investigative stop
  94. Terry v. Ohio (1968)
  95. Use of force
  96. Fellow officer rule
  97. Civil rights violation
  98. Curtilage
  99. Custody
  100. Domestic violence
  101. No retreat law
  102. Punitive damages
  103. Substantive and procedural
  104. Willfully
  105. "a significant lapse of time"
  106. Vicarious liability
  107. Sovereign immunity
  108. Terry Stop
  109. Involuntary
  110. Alibi
  111. Child, juvenile, or youth
  112. Criminal Mischief
  113. Cyber-stalk
  114. Firearm
  115. Duty
  116. Precedents
  117. A first-degree misdemeanor
  118. Articulable suspicion or Founded suspicion
  119. Harass
  120. Aggravated Battery
  121. Disorderly Intoxication
  122. Direct evidence
  123. Victim
  124. Documentary evidence
  125. Trespass—In Structure or Conveyance
  126. Fresh pursuit
  127. Proof beyond a reasonable doubt
  128. "body of the offense"
  129. Self-defense
  130. Burglary
  131. The Fifth Amendment
  132. Consent, Inventory, Administrative searches, and incident to arrest
  133. Testimonial, documentary, or physical.
  134. The Articles of the Constitution
  135. Human Trafficking
  136. Emergency doctrine
  137. Waiver of Rights
  138. Understanding
  139. Statute of limitations
  140. Compensatory damages
  141. Pretext stops
  142. Emergency scene exception
  143. First, there must have been a lawful custodial arrest. Second, the search must be "substantially contemporaneous" or at the same time with the arrest.
  144. at any time
  145. Retail Theft
  146. Negligence
  147. Terry stop
  148. Beyond a reasonable doubt
  149. The Good Faith doctrine
  150. $300
  151. Contraband articles
  152. Arrest affidavit
  153. Structure
  154. Arrest
  155. Robbery
  156. Civil infractions
  157. Statutory Law
  158. "clear and convincing evidence"
  159. Instrumentalities
  160. Hearsay
  161. Plain view, Mobile conveyance, Exigent circumstances
  162. Forfeiture
  163. Voluntarily
  164. Civil liability
  165. the fellow officer rule, a citizen informant,
    corroborated (verified) anonymous tips, reliable and credible confidential information, line-ups, and show-ups.
  166. Custody, interrogation, understanding, and free and voluntary waiving of rights.
  167. Juvenile sexual offender
  168. Criminal Law
  169. Graham v. Connor (1989)
  170. Entrapment
  171. Executive, Legislative, and Judicial
  172. A first-degree felony
  173. Direct liability
  174. Compensatory and punitive
  175. terminate the encounter, issue a notice to appear, or physically take the suspect into custody.
  176. Theft
  177. Fresh Pursuit
  178. Self-help repossession
  179. Possession of Burglary Tools
  180. Carjacking
  181. Default
  182. The supremacy clause
  183. Elderly person
  184. The First Amendment
  185. Drug Abuse Resistance Education
  186. Inventory
  187. Deadly force
  188. Morality and Religion
  189. A second-degree felony
  190. Florida State Constitution
  191. Exclusionary rule
  192. Direct and indirect
  193. Lascivious
  194. Tennessee v. Garner (1985)
  195. Contraband
  196. A cause of action
  197. A local criminal ordinance
  198. Totality of circumstances
  199. (1) the need to disarm the suspect in order to take him or her into custody and (2) the need to preserve evidence for later use at trial."
  200. Interrogation
  201. A life felony
  202. A capital felony
  203. A noncriminal violation
  204. Seizure
  205. Arrest warrant
  206. Plain View
  207. Acting within the scope of employment
  208. Ignorance of the law
  209. Excited utterances
  210. Sexual battery
  211. unless the suspect's attorney is present.
  212. Battery
  213. 14 days
  214. A live line-up
  215. Family or household member
  216. Recklessness
  217. Administrative searches
  218. Miranda v. Arizona (1966)
  219. (1) that the subject is lawfully detained and (2)
    that the officer has reasonable suspicion to believe that the subject possesses a dangerous weapon.
  220. Motor vehicles
  221. Procedural due process
  222. Common Law
  223. Administrative Law
  224. Exigent circumstances
  225. Accessory after the fact
  226. Witness
  227. General intent
  228. Intoxication
  229. Consent
  230. Reasonable suspicion
  231. Child Abuse
  232. Search warrant
  233. Assault
  234. Seibert v. State (2006)
  235. Omission
  236. Davis v. U.S. (2011)
  237. Substantive due process
  238. Felony Battery
  239. Circumstantial
  240. Criminal liability
  241. Color of law
  242. Bill of Rights
  243. Criminal and Civil
  244. The U.S. Constitution
  245. Culpable negligence
  246. "the greater weight (preponderance) of the evidence."
  247. Offense
  248. The government
  249. Mistake or ignorance of fact
  250. Accessory
  251. Fruits of a crime
  252. 1. The person has committed a felony or misdemeanor or violated a county or
    municipal ordinance in the presence of the officer.
    2. The person committed a felony outside of the officer's presence, but the officer has probable cause to believe that the person committed it.
    3. A warrant for arrest has been issued and is being held by another law enforcement officer or agency.
    4. The general rule is that an officer may not make an arrest for a misdemeanor which does not occur in his or her presence. The Florida Statutes contain misdemeanor exceptions to this rule.
  253. The Fruits of the Poisonous Tree doctrine
  254. Home Invasion Robbery
  255. Civil Law
  256. Consensual encounter
  257. Custodial arrest
  258. Abandoned property and open fields
  259. Insanity
  260. Principal in the first degree
  261. within one year
  1. a ___ is responsibility for a wrongful act or an omission that injures a person or property and most often involves negligence. (pg. 87)
  2. b Criminal law recognizes two types of intoxication. (pg. 81)
  3. c _____ involves relying on the collective knowledge of other officers when taking law enforcement action. (pg. 42)
  4. d There are two main categories of damages:___ (pg. 89)
  5. e A person is not criminally responsible if, at the time of the alleged crime, the defendant, by reason of a mental disease or defect, (1) does not know of the nature or consequences of his or her act; or (2) is unable to distinguish right from wrong. (pg. 83)
  6. f All people stand equal before the law and therefore share certain rights, according to the _____. (pg. 32)
  7. g In other words, for ___ crimes the only thing that needs to be proved is that the suspect intentionally committed the illegal act. (pg. 62)
  8. h In addition to maintaining order, laws also serve to... (pg. 30)
  9. i _______ guarantees the right to be informed of the nature of the charges, receive counsel, undergo a speedy and public trial, confront witnesses, and face an impartial jury. (pg. 33)
  10. j The part of statutory law that defines unacceptable behavior and government prosecution of those who commit them. (pg. 30)
  11. k A ______ occurs when the government intrudes into a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy. (pg. 44)
  12. l A search incident to arrest may not be conducted unless there is a ___. (pg. 50)
  13. m Reasonable suspicion is sometimes called_____. (pg. 39)
  14. n ___ is that which proves a fact without an inference or presumption and which, if true in itself, conclusively establishes that fact. (pg. 84)
  15. o ___ means the consent is unequivocal, specific, and intelligently given and more than mere acquiescence in the face of a claim of lawful authority. (pg. 48)
  16. p This defense requires that the person committing the act must reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or great bodily harm to self or a third party is to commit the crime. (pg. 82)
  17. q 1. The act was of a nature to corrupt the public morals.
    2. The act outraged the sense of public decency.
    3. The act affected the peace and quiet of persons who witnessed it.
    4. The person charged engaged in brawling or fighting.
    5. The person charged engaged (pg. 69)
  18. r ___ means a person's social security number, official state-issued or United States-issued driver license or identification number, alien registration number, government passport number, employer or taxpayer identification number, Medicare or food assistance account number, bank account number, credit or debit card number, and medical records. (pg. 74)
  19. s The most recognized types of liability are ___ and ___. (pg. 87)
  20. t Theft crimes are initially divided between... (pg. 63)
  21. u The elements of ___ include questioning initiated by law enforcement that is directly or indirectly intended to elicit an incriminating response. (pg. 58)
  22. v Penalties of imprisonment may be extended for defendants who have been classified as _____. (pg. 36)
  23. w When a person is lawfully arrested and taken into custody, he or she may be searched without a warrant. (pg. 49)
  24. x 1. The offender took the money or property from the victim or from custody of the victim.
    2. Force, violence, assault, or putting in fear of violence was used in the course of the taking.
    3. The property taken was of some value.
    4. The taking was with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive the victim
    of his or her right to the property or any benefit from it. (pg. 64)
  25. y There are four elements to the Miranda decision:___ (pg. 57)
  26. z An ___ is a suspect or defendant's claim that he or she was not present when the alleged act was committed. (pg. 81)
  27. aa ___ means a person 60 years of age or older who is suffering from the infirmities of aging as manifested by advanced age or organic brain damage, or other physical, mental, or emotional dysfunctioning, to the extent that the ability of the person to provide adequately for the person's own care or protection is impaired. (pg. 75)
  28. ab 1. The defendant committed at least one of the following:
    a. intentionally inflicted physical or mental injury upon the victim
    b. committed an intentional act that could reasonably be expected to result in physical or mental injury to the victim
    c. actively encouraged another person to commit an act that results in or could reasonably have been expected to result in physical or mental injury to the victim
    2. The victim is under the age of 18. (pg. 76)
  29. ac ___ are damages awarded in addition to actual damages when the defendant acted with recklessness, malice, or deceit. They are intended to punish the defendant for his or her act and to warn others from doing the same act. (pg. 89)
  30. ad Questioning that prolongs the detention but is not justified by the purpose of the investigative stop is unreasonable under... (pg. 41)
  31. ae are other forms of social control.(pg. 30)
  32. af means to engage in a course of conduct to communicate, or cause to be communicated,
    words, images, or language by or through the use of electronic mail or electronic communication, directed at a specific person, causing substantial emotional distress to that person and serving no legitimate purpose. (pg. 71)
  33. ag The facts and circumstances must support the suspicion that a person committed a crime, is committing a crime, or is about to commit a crime. (pg. 39)
  34. ah An investigative stop is also known as a_____. (pg. 39)
  35. ai It generally requires (1) probable cause that the suspect committed a serious crime, (2) immediate or continuous pursuit of the suspect, and (3) probable cause that the suspect is in the premises that is being entered without a warrant. (pg. 47)
  36. aj ___ refers to the range of reasonable and foreseeable activities that an employee does while carrying out the employer's business. (pg. 92)
  37. ak If the defendant who helped another person or persons commit or attempt to commit a crime and must be treated as if he or she had done all the things the other person or persons did. (pg. 79)
  38. al When an officer acts or purports to act in the performance of official duties under any law, ordinance, or regulation, he or she is acting under ___. (pg. 90)
  39. am The three elements that comprise a Fourth Amendment "search" are thus... (pg. 45)
  40. an The Supreme Court has ruled that evidence obtained by the government in violation of the Constitution cannot be used as evidence in court. This is known as the ___. (pg. 45)
  41. ao ___ is an offense when either the person did some act toward committing the crime that went beyond just thinking or talking about it; or the person would have committed the crime except that someone or something prevented him or her from doing so, or the person failed. (pg. 79)
  42. ap Any contraband an officer can see can be seized without a warrant as long as three conditions are met: (1) the officer is lawfully present in the place where he or she sees the item, (2) the item is in plain sight, and (3) the officer has probable cause to believe that the item is contraband or crime evidence. (pg. 46)
  43. aq (1) An offender commits a felony. (2) After committing the felony, another person maintains or assists the offender. (3) While giving assistance, the person knows that the offender committed the felony. (4) The person assists with the intent of helping the offender avoid or escape detection, arrest, trial, or punishment. (pg. 79)
  44. ar ___ is written and enacted by Congress, state legislatures, or local governing authorities in response to a perceived need. (pg. 30)
  45. as A probable cause affidavit is also called an ___. (pg. 53)
  46. at _____ are punishable by incarceration and classified as either felony or misdemeanor. (pg. 35)
  47. au ___ is witness statements tending to prove or disprove facts about the case. (pg. 84)
  48. av ___ are spouses, former spouses, persons related by blood or marriage, persons who are presently residing together as if a family, or who have resided together in the past as if a family, and persons who are parents of a child in common regardless of whether they have been married. With the exception of persons who have a child in common, the family or household members must be currently residing or have in the past resided together in the same single dwelling unit. (pg. 68)
  49. aw is not a defense to a crime when the suspect decides not to pursue the crime because of unforeseen difficulties in completing the crime or when detection of the criminal activity is imminent. (pg. 79)
  50. ax Their purpose is to ensure that individual rights are not infringed upon by the government. (pg. 32)
  51. ay ___ is the process where a creditor may take possession of the collateral after default without a court order, if the repossession can be done without breach of the peace.
  52. az 1) a duty to act with care, (2) breach of the duty to act, (3) causation or proximate cause, and (4) damages. (pg. 88)
  53. ba R.E.P. stands for... (pg. 45)
  54. bb A search incident to arrest may only be conducted when two requirements have been met. (pg. 50)
  55. bc ___ parallels the U.S. Constitution. (pg. 30)
  56. bd _____ are also known as noncriminal offenses. (pg. 35)
  57. be _____ is the fair and consistent enforcement of the law. (pg. 33)
  58. bf _______ must be aware of conflicting rulings and follow the case law in their own jurisdiction. (pg. 31)
  59. bg Criminal negligence is sometimes referred to as ___. (pg. 62)
  60. bh ___ occurs when one person or entity is held liable for the negligent actions of another person
    even though the first person or entity was not directly responsible for the injury. (pg. 91)
  61. bi 1. The offender knowingly and unlawfully obtained or used or endeavored to obtain or use the property of another.
    2. The offender did so with intent, either temporarily or permanently, to deprive
    victim of his or her right to the property or any benefit from it with the intent
    to deprive the victim of its use, or appropriate the property of the victim to his
    or her own use or to the use of any person not entitled to it. (pg. 63)
  62. bj A person may legally use force to defend against the use of force by another. (pg. 82)
  63. bk If an in-custody suspect, in response to Miranda warnings, invokes his right to counsel, law enforcement may re-initiate contact with the suspect if the suspect experiences a break in police custody of at least... (pg. 60)
  64. bl the U.S. Supreme Court, in _______ said that the courts are not required to consider an officer's motive for stopping a vehicle as long as the officer had an objective basis for the stop. (pg. 41)
  65. bm ___ include items which are illegal to possess, items used in the commission of a felony, and items purchased with the profits of felonious activity. (pg. 51)
  66. bn _____ holds that evidence gathered with the assistance of illegally obtained information must be excluded from trial. (pg. 45)
  67. bo BOLO stands for... (pg. 40)
  68. bp The space of ground and outbuildings immediately surrounding a structure___. (pg. 46)
  69. bq ___ is anything that is illegal to possess. (pg. 85)
  70. br ___- when a person believes that his or her conduct does not violate the law—is generally not recognized as a defense to criminal liability. (pg. 81)
  71. bs Is a form of social control or a method of encouraging people to behave in a certain way. (pg. 30)
  72. bt The most common deadly force incidents involve the use of a ___. (pg. 56)
  73. bu The officer must ensure that the defendant understands his or her rights, taking into account once identified concerns relating to the defendant's age, national origin, education, circumstances of the advising of rights, mental or physical disability, and whether or not the defendant is under the influence of an intoxicating substance. (pg. 59)
  74. bv ___ intoxication occurs when an individual is unaware of ingesting the intoxicant, is tricked into ingesting it, or is following doctor's orders. (pg. 81)
  75. bw We can identify the powers and limitations of each branch through ___. (pg. 30)
  76. bx Four additional search warrant exceptions require less than probable cause:___ (pg. 48)
  77. by Their purpose is to form a contract between the people of the United States and the United States government that spells out the responsibilities and authority of the three branches of government. (pg. 32)
  78. bz ___ generally do not require a warrant due to the setting or special conditions. Subjects of
    this type of search include students, public schools, people in government offices, government property (such as desks, lockers, and vehicles), people engaged in certain businesses or licensed activities, and people on probation or parole. (pg. 49)
  79. ca _____ broadly describes criminal or noncriminal acts that are punishable under Florida law. (pg. 35)
  80. cb (D.A.R.E.) program stands for... (pg. 51)
  81. cc _____ carries a maximum penalty of 30 years in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $10,000, or both. However, certain ______ specifically carry a maximum penalty of life imprisonment in a state correctional facility. (pg. 35)
  82. cd ___ is anything written or printed which is offered to prove or disprove facts pertaining to the case. It includes bank records, medical records, or a certified copy of a subject's driving history. (pg. 84)
  83. ce A ___ is a person or entity which suffers an injury as a result of a crime. The injury may involve physical harm, loss of money, loss of property, or damage to property. (pg. 78)
  84. cf If the suspect invokes only his or her right to remain silent, the officer may re-initiate the interrogation after.... (pg. 60)
  85. cg 1. The offender willfully entered upon or remained in the property.
    2. The property was owned by or was in the lawful possession of the owner, lessee, or other person authorized by the owner or lessee.
    3. Notice against entering or remaining was given, either by actual communication to the offender or via posting, fencing, or cultivation of the property.
    4. The offender's entering or remaining in the property was without permission, expressed or implied, of the owner, lessee, or any other person authorized to give that permission. (pg. 66)
  86. ch After an officer has developed probable cause, he or she has three choices:___ (pg. 53)
  87. ci ___ are the items used by the defendant to commit the crime. (pg. 85)
  88. cj ___ are enacted by a municipal (city) or county government. (pg. 31)
  89. ck ______ is the body of law that allows for the creation of public regulatory agencies. (pg. 31)
  90. cl Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of any other felony. (pg. 83)
  91. cm When using an ___ defense, the accused alleges that he or she suffered from a mental disorder at the time the crime was committed and that the disorder caused the commission of the crime. (pg. 83)
  92. cn _____ is any criminal offense with a maximum incarceration penalty in a county jail of up to one year. (pg. 36)
  93. co ___ is the principle that the officer must determine whether the elements of a criminal act are present and have probable cause to believe that the person to be charged committed the crime. (pg. 61)
  94. cp The term ___ means neglecting to perform what the law or duty requires. (pg. 92)
  95. cq _______ are court-imposed decisions are based on the court's interpretation of constitutional provisions, and they clarify the meaning of a statute or rule as applied to a specific set of facts. (pg. 31)
  96. cr are the objects obtained by the defendant as a result of committing the crime. (pg. 84)
  97. cs ___ means to engage in a course of conduct directed at a specific person which causes substantial emotional distress to that person and serves no legitimate purpose. (pg. 71)
  98. ct In ___ , the United States Supreme Court held that all law enforcement use of force cases are to be judged by an objective reasonableness standard based upon the Fourth Amendment.(pg. 55)
  99. cu _____ is punishable by a maximum of 15 years in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $10,000, or both. (pg. 36)
  100. cv The rules of the society, which developed naturally, have been codified by being written down. (pg. 30)
  101. cw ___ also establishes that an individual has "no duty to retreat" when faced with imminent harm, "has the right to stand his or her ground," and may "meet force with force, including deadly force when he or she reasonably believes it is necessary to do so to prevent death or great
    bodily harm." (pg. 82)
  102. cx ___ is the legal phrase for the link between the breach of duty and the harm caused (damages). (pg. 89)
  103. cy ___ is defined as purposely doing what the law declares to be a crime, whether the person's purpose was to commit the crime or to meet its outcome. (pg. 61)
  104. cz ___ imposes criminal liability on defendants when they did not intend for a behavior to cause the resulting harm. (pg. 62)
  105. da Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of a misdemeanor of the first degree. (pg. 83)
  106. db If the property stolen is valued at less than $___, the offender commits the misdemeanor of petit theft. (pg. 63)
  107. dc ___ is a legal defense in limited circumstances when it negates an essential element of the crime, such as the ability to form criminal intent in the commission of certain offenses. (pg. 81)
  108. dd _____ carries a maximum penalty of 60 days in a county jail, a fine of $500, or both. (pg. 36)
  109. de An ___ is defined as depriving a person of his or her liberty by legal authority. (pg. 52)
  110. df The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution comprise the _______. (pg. 33)
  111. dg _____ are punishable by monetary fines or something other than incarceration. (pg. 35)
  112. dh Commonly recognized sources for officers to rely on include:... (pg. 42)
  113. di A ________ is a court order that authorizes law enforcement to conduct a search and seizure. (pg. 44)
  114. dj In ___, the Court decided that whenever a law enforcement officer questions a suspect in custody, the officer must advise the person of certain Constitutional rights. These rights include the right to remain silent and the right to have an attorney present when being questioned by law enforcement. (pg. 57)
  115. dk In ______ the Supreme Court held that "when the police conduct a search in objectively reasonable reliance on binding appellate precedent, the exclusionary rule does not apply." (pg. 45)
  116. dl ___ bars the state from prosecuting an individual after a certain period of time has elapsed since the criminal act occurred. (pg. 83)
  117. dm ___ include the following offenses: treason, murder, manslaughter, sexual battery, carjacking, home invasion robbery, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnapping, aggravated assault, aggravated battery, aggravated stalking, aircraft piracy, unlawful throwing placing or discharging of a destructive device, any other felony which involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual. (pg. 82)
  118. dn A ______ occurs when the government affects a
    person's right to have or control his or her property, usually by physically taking it. (pg. 44)
  119. do A ___ will be issued by the court to the sheriff, who is then authorized to evict the tenant and put the landlord in possession of the residence after a prescribed notice period.
  120. dp ___ protects "government officials . . . from liability for civil damages insofar as their conduct does not violate clearly established statutory or constitutional rights of which a reasonable person would have known." (pg. 93)
  121. dq The law presumes that a search without a warrant is invalid; however, there are a number of exceptions which require probable cause:___ (pg. 46)
  122. dr _____ is to a civil case what a criminal statue is to a criminal case. (pg. 31)
  123. ds Once the suspect has been advised of his or her Miranda rights, a ___ is required before questioning may commence. (pg. 59)
  124. dt _____ carries a maximum penalty of one year in a county jail, a fine of $1,000, or both. (pg. 36)
  125. du ___ means wrongfully, intentionally, without legal justification or excuse, and with the knowledge that injury or damage will or may be caused to another person or the property of another person. (pg. 74)
  126. dv The two main components of due process are ______. (pg. 33)
  127. dw An ___ is defined as a person who aids or contributes in the commission or concealment of a crime. (pg. 79)
  128. dx ___ requires an inference or presumption to establish a fact. (pg. 84)
  129. dy 1. The offender loitered or prowled in a place at a time or in a manner not usual for law-abiding
    individuals.
    2. Such loitering and prowling was under circumstances that warranted justifiable and reasonable alarm or immediate concern for the safety of persons or property in the vicinity. (pg. 66)
  130. dz Under criminal law principles, there are four basic classifications of intent: (pg. 61)
  131. ea Many agencies in Florida prefer the expression ___ to refer to the process of interrogating or questioning a suspect; however, Florida courts routinely use the term "interrogation." (pg. 58)
  132. eb Set forth in Article VI, ______ states that when laws conflict, federal law generally overrules state and local law. (pg. 32)
  133. ec _____ is the standard used to determine if a criminal defendant is guilty. Based on the facts of the case, there is no other reasonable explanation than that defendant committed the crime. (pg. 43)
  134. ed When the officer stops the vehicle due to an equipment violation but really wants to investigate other, more serious criminal activity. (pg. 41)
  135. ee In deciding whether the reasonable suspicion or probable cause standards have been met, courts review all factors known to the officer at the time of the incident. This is known as the _________ test. (pg. 42)
  136. ef Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of a misdemeanor of the second degree or a noncriminal offense. (pg. 83)
  137. eg 1. The offender knowingly did one of the following:
    a. took possession of or carried away merchandise
    b. altered or removed a label or price tag from merchandise
    c. transferred merchandise from one container to another
    d. removed a shopping cart from a merchant's premises
    2. The offender intended to deprive the merchant of the possession, use, benefit,
    or full retail value of the merchandise or shopping cart. (pg. 63)
  138. eh ______ provide a forum for the parties to resolve disputes through legal action. (pg. 31)
  139. ei 1. The offender was intoxicated and endangered the safety of another person or property.
    2. The offender was intoxicated or drank any alcoholic beverage in a public place or in or upon a public conveyance and caused a public disturbance. (pg. 69)
  140. ej _____ occurs when a law enforcement officer locates a suspect a short time after the commission of an offense and attempts to get a one-on-one identification of the suspect in the field by a victim or witness. (pg. 43)
  141. ek ___ is a common legal term describing a person's authority to take reasonable steps, including the use of force (except deadly force) to the extent that a person reasonably believes is necessary to protect his or her possessions from trespass or theft or to stop these acts. (pg. 82)
  142. el ___ is a legal doctrine that permits a law enforcement officer to make an arrest of a fleeing suspect who crosses jurisdictional lines. It is an exception to the general rule that a Florida officer's arrest powers are limited to the jurisdiction of the agency that employs the officer. (pg. 54)
  143. em ___ shall not be deemed or construed to mean the failure by the alleged victim to offer physical resistance to the offender. (pg. 72)
  144. en There are two primary types of evidence:___ (pg. 84)
  145. eo ______ is the agent of the people, not their master. (pg. 33)
  146. ep 1. The offender intentionally and unlawfully threatened, either by word or act, to do violence to the victim.
    2. At the time, the offender appeared to have the ability to carry out the threat.
    3. The act of the offender created in the mind of the victim a well-founded fear that the violence was about to take place. (pg. 67)
  147. eq ___ means the suspect is deprived of freedom in a significant way. (pg. 57)
  148. er Indirect evidence is also known as ___. (pg. 84)
  149. es _____ carries a maximum penalty of five years in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $5,000, or both. (pg. 36)
  150. et Prosecution must begin ___ after the commission of a felony of the first degree. (pg. 83)
  151. eu A __ is any person who has information about some element of the crime or about evidence or documents related to the crime. He or she may have heard statements or observed events before, during, or after the crime. He or she may have information about a piece of physical evidence associated with the crime or knowledge of some document related to the crime. (pg. 78)
  152. ev If the suspect requests an attorney,the officer may not re-initiate the interrogation... (pg. 60)
  153. ew A _____ may be conducted without a warrant even if there may be time to obtain a warrant. (pg. 47)
  154. ex ______ is best known for prohibiting compelled self-incrimination. It also requires grand jury indictment for capital crimes and prohibits double jeopardy and deprivation of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. (pg. 33)
  155. ey If officers execute a search warrant they believe to be valid and a court later determines the warrant to have a legal error, any seized evidence may still be admitted, according to the.... (pg. 45)
  156. ez _____ refers to the steps that must be followed to protect an individual's rights during a criminal justice process. (pg. 33)
  157. fa ___ means intentionally, knowingly, and purposely. (pg. 74)
  158. fb Not all crimes have an identifiable victim. In victimless crimes, the victim is the ___. (pg. 78)
  159. fc ___ arises in cases in which the officer committed an intentional or a negligent tort in violation of the employing agency's orders or policies. (pg. 91)
  160. fd ___ occurs when an officer is found guilty of committing a crime and is sentenced to incarceration or other penalties. (pg. 87)
  161. fe 1. The offender injured or damaged property.
    2. The property belonged to someone else.
    3. The injury or damage was done willfully and maliciously. (pg. 74)
  162. ff This rule allows the officer to seize the contraband even if it does not feel like a weapon. (pg. 40)
  163. fg ___ is a common legal term that describes the justifiable use of force that is necessary to protect oneself. This same legal term also describes the justifiable use of force necessary for the defense of others. (pg. 82)
  164. fh An ___ is a written list of all valuable property in a vehicle. (pg. 49)
  165. fi ____ are given a higher degree of constitutional protection than areas that do not have such improvements. (pg. 46)
  166. fj ___ occurs when a law enforcement officer uses undue persuasion or fraudulent means to induce a person to commit a crime he or she would not have otherwise committed. It can be used as a legal defense in these cases. (pg. 82)
  167. fk ___ are not designed to search for evidence but to protect the arrested person's property and to protect the officer from accusations of theft. (pg. 49)
  168. fl _____ are included in Satutory law. (pg. 30)
  169. fm An ___ is a court order authorizing law enforcement to take the individual named on the warrant into custody to answer for charges specified in the warrant. (pg. 52)
  170. fn A ______ is a sworn, written statement by a law enforcement officer establishing certain facts and circumstances to justify an arrest. This document is used by the judge to determine if there was sufficient probable cause to detain the individual. (pg. 53)
  171. fo The most common type of property repossession is that of ___.
  172. fp is derived from the common law idea that the king and his agents can do no wrong. (pg. 92)
  173. fq The burden of proof in civil cases is ___. (pg. 43)
  174. fr A ___ is the person believed to have committed a crime. (pg. 78)
  175. fs ___ refers to the legal requirements that must be met before a jury is allowed to see or hear about the evidence. (pg. 85)
  176. ft ___ recognizes that a criminal defendant will be judged on his or her present ability to assist counsel by participating in the criminal defense. (pg. 83)
  177. fu 1. The offender intentionally and unlawfully threatened, either by word or act, to do violence to the victim.
    2. At the time, the offender appeared to have the ability to carry out the threat.
    3. The act of the offender created in the mind of the victim a well-founded fear that the violence was about to take place.
    4. The assault was made with a deadly weapon without the intent to kill, or the assault was made with the intent to commit a felony. (pg. 67)
  178. fv 1. The offender solicited a person to commit a certain offense.
    2. During solicitation, the offender commanded, enc uraged, hired, or requested the other person to engage in specific conduct which would constitute the commission of the offense or attempt to commit the offense. (pg. 79)
  179. fw 1. The offender entered and/or remained in a structure or conveyance owned by or in the possession of the victim.
    2. The offender did not have the permission or consent of the victim, or anyone authorized to act for the victim, to enter and/or remain in the structure or conveyance at the time.
    3. At the time of entering and/or remaining in the structure or conveyance, the offender had a fully formed, conscious intent to commit the crime that is listed in the charge. (pg. 66)
  180. fx ___ refers to actual objects which may be offered to prove facts about a case. (pg. 84)
  181. fy ___ means a building of any kind, either temporary or permanent, which has a roof over it, together with the curtilage thereof. (pg. 65)
  182. fz is a description of the suspect, the suspect's name, and any additional information that would help apprehend the suspect.
  183. ga _____ is a fair probability or reasonable grounds to believe that someone committed a crime, based on the totality of circumstances. (pg. 41)
  184. gb where officers were justified in entering a house because they had an objectively reasonable basis to believe that a subject was going to commit suicide. Once within the house, they discovered a murder victim while securing the subject to prevent his suicide. (pg. 48)
  185. gc ____ are the three branch structure. (pg. 30)
  186. gd _____ occurs when an officer comes into voluntary contact with a citizen under circumstances in which a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about his or her business. It involves no coercion, no detention, and therefore is no Fourth Amendment seizure. (pg. 39)
  187. ge ___ means not in accordance with nature or with normal feelings or behavior. (pg. 72)
  188. gf 1. The offender intended to commit a burglary or trespass.
    2. The offender had in her or her possession a tool, machine, or implement that he or she intended to use or allow to be used in the commission of the burglary or trespass. (pg. 66)
  189. gg Mobile conveyance search are sometimes called... (pg. 47)
  190. gh _____ is sometimes described as a hunch or gut feeling based on law enforcement training and knowledge. (pg. 39)
  191. gi ___ is a court order that entitles the creditor to possess
    collateral after the borrower defaults.
  192. gj Black's Law Dictionary defines a ___ as an act that the law makes punishable. (pg. 63)
  193. gk A ___ is an unlawful interference with the fundamental rights of another person, such as the rights to due process and equal protection under the law. (pg. 89)
  194. gl A person who is ___ intoxicated is aware of ingesting the intoxicant, either alcohol or a controlled substance. (pg. 81)
  195. gm Prosecution may begin ___ after the commission of a capital offense, a life felony, or a felony that resulted in death. (pg. 83)
  196. gn The _____ involves a situation in which officers may make a warrantless entry in order to ensure their own safety or that of the public. (pg. 48)
  197. go ___ means a wicked, lustful, or unchaste, licentious, or sensual intent on the part of the person doing the act. (pg. 72)
  198. gp 1. Whoever, without being authorized, licensed, or invited, willfully enters or remains in any structure or conveyance, or, having been authorized, licensed, or invited, is warned by the owner or lessee of the premises, or person authorized by the owner or lessee, to depart and refuses to do so.
    2. The structure or conveyance was in the lawful possession of the owner, lessee, or
    other person authorized by the owner or lessee. (pg. 65)
  199. gq ___ are designed to compensate for the actual property damage, harm, or injury that
    the plaintiff suffers. (pg. 89)
  200. gr An offense for which the only penalty may be a fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty is _____. (pg. 36)
  201. gs ___ are unplanned, spontaneous statements that occur during or after a shocking event, or having suffered an injury, and may be relied upon for truthfulness. (pg. 85)
  202. gt ___ means transporting, soliciting, recruiting, harboring, providing, enticing, maintaining, or obtaining another person for the purpose of exploitation of that person. (pg. 77)
  203. gu 1. The intent of the offender was that the offense (object of conspiracy) would be committed.
    2. In order to carry out the intent, the offender agreed, conspired, combined, or confederated with the person(s) alleged to cause (object of conspiracy) to be committed either by them, or one of them, or by some other person. (pg. 80)
  204. gv ___ is a legal defense that is used when the accused does not possess the mental state required to commit a criminal offense because of a reasonably mistaken belief about the facts relating to the circumstances. (pg. 81)
  205. gw _____ is any crime committed for which the maximum penalty is death or incarceration in a state correctional facility for more than one year. (pg. 35)
  206. gx ___ is a civil proceeding in which the law enforcement agency asks the court to transfer ownership of the property from the defendant to the government. The government may then sell the property at auction or use the property for law enforcement purposes. (pg. 51)
  207. gy a ___ is a written order that may be issued by a law enforcement officer in lieu of a physical arrest requiring a person accused of violating the law to appear in court at a specified date and time. It may be used only under limited circumstances for misdemeanor offenses, municipal or county ordinance violations, and criminal traffic violations. (pg. 53)
  208. gz _____ is a presentation of a series of photographs to a victim or witness in a non-suggestive manner for the purpose of identifying a suspect. (pg. 43)
  209. ha The two elements required for a lawful pat down or frisk are_____. (pg. 40)
  210. hb _______ are rules created by an appellate court that officers are required to follow unless a higher court changes the rule. (pg. 31)
  211. hc Florida law defines ___ as any force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm. (pg. 56)
  212. hd No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty or property, without due process of law; nor deny any person within its jurisdiction of the equal protection of the laws. (pg. 33)
  213. he 1. The offender actually and intentionally touched or struck the victim against the victim's will.
    2. The offender intentionally caused bodily harm to the victim. (pg. 67)
  214. hf ___ requires an expectation of a particular result, which requires a heightened mental state of intent to commit the act. (pg. 62)
  215. hg Corpus delicti is the Latin term meaning the ___. (pg. 61)
  216. hh If the borrower fails to pay the loan as agreed (called a ___), the creditor is entitled to possession of the collateral.
  217. hi ___ are certain emergencies such as the case of evidence destruction, an emergency scene, or a fresh pursuit that justifies a warrantless entry. (pg. 47)
  218. hj ___ is based primarily on English common law. (pg. 30)
  219. hk 1. The offender intentionally touched or struck the victim against his or her will or caused bodily harm to the victim.
    2. The offender, in committing the battery,
    a. intentionally or knowingly caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement to the victim, or
    b. used a deadly weapon, or
    c. knew or should have known that the victim was pregnant. (pg. 68)
  220. hl A ___ is a civil wrong in which the action or inaction of a person or entity violates the rights of another person or entity. (pg. 87)
  221. hm 1. The offender took the motor vehicle from the victim or custody of the victim.
    2. Force, violence, assault, or putting in fear of violence was used in the course of the taking.
    3. The taking was with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive the victim of his or her right to the vehicle or any benefit from it. (pg. 65)
  222. hn ______ guarantees the right to bear arms. (pg. 33)
  223. ho ____ is consciously doing an act that the person knew or should have known was likely to cause death or great bodily injury. (pg. 62)
  224. hp ___ means any motor vehicle, ship, vessel, railroad vehicle or car, trailer, aircraft, or sleeping car. (pg. 65)
  225. hq In administrative proceedings, the burden of proof is ___. (pg. 43)
  226. hr Evidence presented in court can be placed into one of three primary categories:___ (pg. 84)
  227. hs Often, a suspect who is in custody will voluntarily give information even when not solicited through questioning. These statements, known as ___. (pg. 58)
  228. ht ___ means the giving or receiving of the body for sexual activity for hire, but excludes sexual activity between spouses. (pg. 74)
  229. hu Two search types that are often considered exceptions to the search warrant requirement are not technically searches because the person does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the place to be searched. Those are searches of... (pg. 46)
  230. hv In ______ a police officer saw a white pill on the console of a car and, thinking it was ecstasy, seized it. Testing proved the officer was correct. (pg. 46)
  231. hw ___ is evidence that points to the suspect's or defendant's innocence in a trial. (pg. 81)
  232. hx The maximum penalty for violating ______ is a fine of $500 or incarceration in a county jail for a period of up to 60 days and/or both. (pg. 37)
  233. hy The duration of a _____ is limited to the time reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose of the stop.
    An investigative detention may become an arrest even if the officer does not initially intend to make the arrest. (pg. 41)
  234. hz In ____ the Court ruled that a law enforcement officer may frisk the exterior clothing of someone lawfully detained if the officer has reasonable suspicion to believe that the person is armed.
  235. ia ___ means oral, anal, or vaginal penetration by, or union with, the sexual organ of another or the anal or vaginal penetration of another by any other object; however, sexual battery does not include an act done for a bona fide medical purpose. (pg. 71)
  236. ib ___ means any unmarried person under the age of 18 who has not been emancipated by order of the court and who has been found or alleged to be dependent, in need of services, or from a family in need of services; or any married or unmarried person who is charged with a violation of law occurring prior to the time that person reached the age of 18 years.
  237. ic _____ is the presentation of a number of individuals, which may include a known suspect, to a victim or witness in a non-suggestive manner for the purpose of identification. (pg. 43)
  238. id ___ is information that is allowed in court, while proof is the effect produced by that information. (pg. 84)
  239. ie In ___ the United States Supreme Court struck down a law which allowed law enforcement officers to use whatever force was necessary to stop fleeing felons. (pg. 56)
  240. if ___ pertains to the legal action that a person takes to resolve a private dispute with another person. (pg. 31)
  241. ig The law recognizes four standards of legal justification:... (pg. 38)
  242. ih ___ is a child 12 years of age or younger who is alleged to have committed a violation of sexual battery, prostitution, a lewd and lascivious act, an act of sexual performance by a child, or an act of obscenity, or any violation of law or delinquent act involving juvenile sexual abuse
  243. ii ___ is a statement other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the trial or hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. (pg. 85)
  244. ij _____ protects the freedom of speech, press, peaceful assembly, and religion. (pg. 33)
  245. ik Before a person may be found guilty of a crime and sentenced, the prosecution must
    present evidence sufficient to prove guilt of each element of the crime_____. (pg. 43)
  246. il 1. The offender actually and intentionally touched or struck the victim against the victim's will.
    2. The offender caused the victim great bodily harm, permanent disability, or permanent disfigurement. (pg. 67)
  247. im ___ means a building or conveyance of any kind, including any attached porch, whether such building or conveyance is temporary or permanent, mobile, or immobile, which has a roof over it and is designed to be occupied by people lodging therein at night. (pg. 65)
  248. in ___ is present when an intentional act harms an unintended second victim. (pg. 62)
  249. io The Supreme Court has noted "two historical rationales for the search incident to arrest exception: ___ (pg. 49)
  250. ip An officer can only make an ____ if the officer has reasonable suspicion that the person stopped was committing, is committing, or is about to commit a law violation. (pg. 39)
  251. iq ___ is any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death of one family or household member by another. (pg. 68)
  252. ir ___ means that the defendant unreasonably failed in the duty he or she was obligated to perform. (pg. 89)
  253. is ___ is a defense against liability that allows an officer to react instinctively to sudden peril without being held to the same legal standard of care as he or she would have been had there been time to reflect upon the circumstances. (pg. 94)
  254. it A law enforcement officer may make a probable cause arrest without a warrant under the following circumstances:___ (pg. 52)
  255. iu _______ prohibits excessive bails and fines and cruel and unusual punishment. (pg. 33)
  256. iv 1. The offender entered the dwelling of the victim.
    2. At the time that the offender entered the dwelling, he or she intended to commit robbery.
    3. While inside the dwelling, the offender did commit robbery. (pg. 65)
  257. iw _____ has varying penalties, including up to life imprisonment in a state correctional facility, a fine of up to $15,000, or both. (pg. 35)
  258. ix A ___ is usually created by statute or contract. (pg. 88)
  259. iy _____ is the highest class of felony. The penalty for offenses in this class is death or life imprisonment in a state correctional facility without the possibility of parole. (pg. 35)
  260. iz The Bill of Rights was originally intended to restrict the actions of the federal government only. __________ expanded the application of the Bill of Rights to state and local governments as well. (pg. 33)
  261. ja 1. The offender took the money or property from the victim or from custody of the victim.
    2. The property taken was of some value.
    3. The victim was or became aware of the act in the course of the taking.
    4. The taking was with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive the victim
    of his or her right to the property or any benefit from it. (pg. 64)