Florida Basic Recruit Training Program (Chapter 9) flashcards |

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  • Incident Command System

    ICS stands for ___.

    National Incident Management System

    NIMS stands for ___.

    Federal Emergency Management Agency

    FEMA stands for ___.

    Plain Language

    Communication should be conducted in ___ as different agencies may use different radio codes.

    Debriefing; Documentation

    Most incidents require some degree of ___ or ___ when they are over.

    FBI

    The ___ defines an active shooter as one or more individuals participating in a random or systematic killing spree demonstrating their intent to harm others with a firearm.

    Active Shooter

    The FBI defines an ___ as one or more individuals participating in a random or systematic killing spree demonstrating their intent to harm others with a firearm.

    Mass Murder

    An active shooter's objective is that of ___, rather than committing traditional criminal acts, such as robbery or hostage-taking.

    95

    Approximately ___ percent of active shooters have historically been males and typically work alone.

    Males; Alone

    Approximately 95 percent of active shooters have historically been ___ and typically work ___.

    Twice

    Active shooter incidents happen in the workplace nearly ___ as often as in schools but can occur anywhere.

    Columbine High School

    The main objective of a law enforcement response to an active shooter incident has changed since the attacks at ___ in 1999.

    Travel; Safety Kit

    In the event of a natural disaster be sure that you have prepared a ___ and ___.

    Weapons of Mass Destruction

    WMD stands for ___.

    Civilians

    Terrorists use weapons of mass destruction on ___ as a primary means of achieving their goals.

    First-degree

    It is a ___ felony to unlawfully manufacture, possess, sell, deliver, send, mail, display, use, threaten to use, attempt to use, conspire to use, or make readily accessible to others a "weapon of mass destruction" under s. 790.166, F.S.

    Second-degree

    Under s. 790.166, F.S., it is a ____ felony to unlawfully manufacture, possess, sell, deliver, mail, send, display, use, threaten to use, attempt to use, conspire to use, or make readily accessible to others a "hoax weapon of mass destruction," which is defined as any device or object that by its design, construction, content, or characteristics appears to be, or is falsely represented to be, an actual weapon of mass destruction.

    Second-degree

    It is a ___ felony for a person to make a false report concerning the placing or planting of a weapon of mass
    destruction under s. 790.163, F.S.

    Pre-Operational

    Historically, terrorists conduct ___ surveillance before executing an attack. This surveillance can take many forms, such as videotaping a potential target location, sketching floor plans, photographing structural features, and taking notes on security measures.

    CBRNE

    ___ is an acronym commonly used to identify types of hazards that an officer may face either as part of an accidental release or intentional use of a weapon of mass destruction.

    โ€ข Chemical
    โ€ข Biological
    โ€ข Radiological
    โ€ข Nuclear
    โ€ข Explosives

    CBRNE stands for ___.

    Law enforcement officers

    ___ are likely to be the first to arrive at the scene of an emergency involving weapons of mass destruction or hazardous materials.

    Five

    There are ___ levels of training for response to hazardous materials.

    Awareness Role

    First responders at the ___ level have been trained to initiate the emergency response sequence and notify authorities of the situation. They take no further action beyond notifying the authorities of the release.

    Operational Role

    At this level responders take defensive action to protect nearby people, property, or the environment from the effects of the release. They are trained to respond in a defensive fashion without actually trying to stop the release. Their function is to contain the release from a safe distance, keep it from spreading, and prevent exposures.

    Hazardous Materials Technician

    These responders take offensive action to control a spill or leak. They assume a more aggressive role than a first responder at the operations level in that they will approach the point of release in order to plug, patch or otherwise stop the release of a hazardous substance.

    Hazardous Materials Specialist

    ____ have the expert knowledge to support the hazardous materials technician, but their duties require a more directed or specific knowledge of the various substances they may be called upon to contain. They also acts as the site liaison with federal, state, local and other government authorities in regards to site activities.

    Hazardous Materials Incident Commander

    These individuals assume command of the incident above the level of the first responder; they are trained to
    implement the employer's emergency response plan. They understand the hazards and risks of employees working in chemical protective clothing, know how to implement local, state, and federal emergency response plans, and understand the importance of decontamination procedures.

    Upwind; Uphill; Upstream

    Approach the incident cautiously from an ___, ___, or ___ position until you can safely identify and assess the CBRNE situation.

    Four

    Patrol officers are typically trained to respond at the awareness level and have only ___ responsibilities or goals, sometimes abbreviated as RIP-NOT.

    โ€ข Recognition and identification
    โ€ข Isolation
    โ€ข Protection
    โ€ข Notification

    RIP-NOT stands for ___.

    Recognize; Identify

    Officers must be able to ___ that an incident involves WMD or hazardous materials and, if possible, ___ the materials involved.

    Safe

    Most materials can be identified from a ___ distance.

    Isolation

    ___ is the ability to deny or restrict access to the involved area and remove uninjured and uncontaminated people from that area.

    Victim Collection Points (VCPs)

    Contaminated and uncontaminated people should be kept separated to avoid the spread of contamination. These areas are called ___ and can be designated once a preliminary perimeter has been established.

    Protection

    ___ involves ensuring the safety of the officer and the public through personal protective equipment and the evacuation of nearby structures.

    Entering; Exiting

    When securing the scene, priority should be given to preventing additional people from ___ the area rather than preventing victims from ___.

    Notification

    The fourth level is ___, in which the first responder informs the next level of responder as defined in the agency's Emergency Response Plan. The officer should maintain continuous communication with dispatch as the event unfolds. This ensures the proper resources are deployed.

    Emergency Response Plan (ERP)

    An ___ is defined as a written plan that describes the actions that an organization would take in response to various major events.

    Yourself

    Your first responsibility in a CBRNE situation is to protect ___.

    Other People; Property

    Your secondary responsibility is to protect ___ and ___.

    Shelter-in-place

    ___ is defined as taking immediate shelter in a readily accessible location or remaining inside a structure to prevent exposure to a dangerous situation that exists outside of the structure.

    Occupational Safety and Health Administration

    OSHA stands for ___.

    Hazardous Material

    ___ is any substance or material that when released may cause harm, serious injury, or death to humans or animals, or harm the environment.

    Industrial; Weaponized

    CBRNE chemical threats include both ___ chemical hazards as well as ___ chemical hazards.

    Industrial

    ___ chemical hazards are typically encountered in hazardous materials release incidents, such as accidents involving tanker or semi-trucks, railroad cars, gasoline stations, and manufacturing plants.

    Weaponized

    ___ chemical hazards are usually
    associated with acts of terrorism or war.

    Render Assistance

    A law enforcement officer is expected to ___ in a hazmat situation.

    Standard of Care

    The level of competency expected or required during the performance
    of this duty is called the ___.

    Occupancy

    ___ refers to a structure and its use; some examples are manufacturing facilities, storage facilities, retail establishments, and residences.

    Location

    ___ refers to an area and its use, for example, industrial
    parks, business districts, agricultural areas, and residential neighborhoods.

    Shape

    The ___ of the container involved in the hazmat incident can provide useful
    information regarding the type of hazard involved.

    Portable; Fixed; Transportation

    The main types of containers are ___, ___, and ___.

    Size

    There is usually a direct correlation between the ___ of the container and the ___ of the affected geographical
    area.

    Placards; Labels

    Certain regulations govern the use of ___ or ___ on vehicles and facilities that
    store hazardous materials.

    The U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT)

    ___ requires most
    vehicles transporting hazardous materials to display placards that describe the class of
    hazardous materials on board.

    4

    These appear on all ___ sides of a vehicle, railcar, or other large container, and on the individual packages of the material.

    Two or More

    Anything that holds ___ classes of hazardous materials must display the "DANGEROUS" placard and may use it instead of the specific placard for each class of material.

    Explosives and Toxic Gases

    Materials such as ___ and ___ cannot use the "DANGEROUS" placard.

    The Environmental Protection Agency

    ____ requires all pesticides and some other chemical substances to
    display warning labels on the exterior of the container to provide awareness of the harmful contents.

    9

    There are ___ common classes of hazardous materials as defined by the DOT.

    Explosives

    Class 1 is ___.

    Explosives

    ___ are materials or devices designed to release energy very rapidly. Emergency responders should consider them to be extreme hazards when they are involved
    in or near a fire.

    Explosives

    Some examples of ___ materials are dynamite, black powder, and
    small arms ammunition.

    Gases

    Class 2 is ___.

    Gases

    ___ are materials that are neither solid nor liquid at ordinary temperatures; they are contained under pressure.

    Gases

    ___ may be flammable, non-flammable, poisonous, or corrosive.

    Flammable Liquids/ Combustible Liquids

    Class 3 is ___.

    Flammable Liquids/ Combustible Liquids

    These materials burn in the presence of an ignition source.

    Flammable Liquids/ Combustible Liquids

    Some examples of ___ are gasoline, diesel fuel, and acetone.

    Flammable Solids

    Class 4 is ___.

    Flammable Solids

    These materials are neither liquid nor gas and burn in the presence of an ignition source. Some ignite
    spontaneously or in the presence of heat or friction. Others are dangerous when wet.

    Flammable Solids

    Some examples of ___ are magnesium, sulfur, and calcium carbide.

    Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides

    Class 5 is ___.

    Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides

    These materials may cause spontaneous combustion or increase the intensity of a fire.

    Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides

    Examples of ___ include
    bromine or calcium hypochlorite (bleach).

    Calcium Hypochlorite

    Bleach is also known as ___.

    Toxic Materials and Infectious Substance

    Class 6 is ___.

    Toxic Materials and Infectious Substance

    ___ includes medical waste and biological hazards.

    Radioactive Substances

    Class 7 is ___.

    Radioactive Substances

    This category includes nuclear waste, radioactive medical materials, and X-ray equipment.

    Corrosive Substances

    Class 8 is ___.

    Corrosive Substances

    Materials in this category include acids, solvents, or other materials that may cause irreversible damage to human tissues.

    Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods

    Class 9 is ___.

    Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods

    Not belonging to Classes 1-8, these hazardous materials are subject to DOT regulations on transportation.

    Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods

    Some examples of ___ are molten sulfur, PCBs (poly-chlorinated biphenyls), and hazardous waste.

    Commercial vehicle operators

    ____ are required to carry documents that list the contents of their shipment.

    Shipping papers

    Commercial vehicle operators are required to carry documents that list the contents of their shipment. These documents are commonly referred to as ___ and serve as a valuable resource to help first responders identify the materials involved as well as the associated hazards and protective measures if exposures occur.

    Facility documents

    ___ are required by law in many areas and outline the type of hazardous materials stored or
    manufactured on site.

    Material Safety Data Sheet

    MSDS stands for ___.

    Material Safety Data Sheet

    ____ are required to be displayed in facilities where a hazardous substance is stored, manufactured, or used in the workplace.

    Colors

    ___ of placards and labels also help identify a material's hazard classification.

    The National Fire Protection Association

    NFPA stands for ___.

    704 System

    The National Fire Protection Association has developed a standard facility marking system called the
    ___.

    4

    The diamond-shaped symbol is divided into ____ segments that indicate the risks.

    Health hazards

    The diamond-shaped symbol is divided into four segments that indicate the following risks: Blue means ___.

    Flammability hazards

    The diamond-shaped symbol is divided into four segments that indicate the following risks: Red means ___.

    Reactivity

    The diamond-shaped symbol is divided into four segments that indicate the following risks: Yellow means ___.

    Other (provides information on any special hazards of the material)

    The diamond-shaped symbol is divided into four segments that indicate the following risks: White means ___.

    0; 4

    In each area, a number from ___ to ___ indicates the material's relative hazard with ___ indicating no hazard and ___ indicating the highest hazard.

    Sight; Sound

    ___ and ___ are considered "low risk" and can help officers identify a hazmat from a safe distance.

    Smell; Touch; Taste

    ___, ___, and ___ are considered "high risk" and should never be used to identify a hazardous material.

    Crosswind

    If you cannot approach from upwind, your next choice is ___.

    Direct Contamination

    Prevent ___ by avoiding contact with the product and its gases, vapors, or smoke.

    Secondary Contamination

    Prevent ___ resulting from contact with items or people who have not been properly decontaminated.

    ERP; SOP; ERG

    Resources that help an officer make sound decisions include the agency's ___, ___, and the ___.

    Emergency Response Guidebook

    The ___ purpose is to aid in the identification of materials, outline basic actions for first responders, recommend areas
    of protective action, and give responders an initial safety plan.

    Emergency Response Guidebook

    The ___ is composed of color-coded sections.

    Blue; Yellow; Orange

    The ___ and ___ sections of the ERG help the officer identify the material while the ___ section provides response guidelines related to Potential Hazards, Public Safety, and Emergency Response.

    United Nations/North American (UN/NA)

    DOT has established the ___ four-digit numbering system to identify
    materials.

    Protective Action
    Distance

    The evacuation subsection also
    gives information about how far people should stay from a spill, also known as the ___.

    Table of Initial
    Isolation

    If the material's entry in the index is highlighted, the officer should consult the ___ and Protective Action Distances.

    Fire

    ___ creates the potential for an explosion or a boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion
    (BLEVE).

    Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion

    BLEVE stands for ___.

    Fire; Spill or Leak; and First Aid

    The Emergency Response has three subsections: ___, ___, and ___.

    Meth Labs

    Locations where methamphetamine is manufactured are known as ___; these are not scientific laboratories in the traditional sense.

    Methamphetamine

    ___ is manufactured by converting
    pseudoephedrine or ephedrine through a simple chemical process.

    "Shake and Bake" method, the red phosphorous method, and the "Nazi" (anhydrous
    ammonia) method.

    Common methods used in the manufacture of methamphetamine are the one pot ___, ___, and ___.

    Chemical suicide

    ___ is a method of committing
    suicide by mixing two or more easily acquired chemicals, commonly an acid and a base.

    Acid; Base

    Chemical suicide is a method of committing
    suicide by mixing two or more easily acquired chemicals, commonly an ___ and a ___.

    Detergent Suicide

    Chemical suicide is also known as ____.

    Hydrogen Sulfide; Hydrogen Cyanide

    There are multiple
    methods of chemical suicide; the most common include ___ and ___.

    Mild

    Symptoms of exposure to chemical suicide can vary widely depending on the degree of contamination. ___ exposure to such chemicals can irritate the eyes, nose, and throat.

    Moderate

    Symptoms of exposure to chemical suicide can vary widely depending on the degree of contamination. Symptoms of ___ exposure include headaches, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, coughing, and difficulty breathing.

    High

    Symptoms of exposure to chemical suicide can vary widely depending on the degree of contamination. ___ exposure symptoms include severe respiratory irritation, severe eye irritation, convulsions, coma, and death.

    Anthrax; Ricin; Smallpox; Botulinum

    The most common examples of biological weapons include ___, ___, ___, and ___.

    Anthrax

    ____ is a naturally occurring bacterium. The primary routes of exposure to ___ are skin exposure and inhalation. If exposure occurs through the skin, symptoms include a rash and lesions that begin small but grow over a period of days. If it is inhaled, flu-like symptoms, such as respiratory distress, vomiting, and fever, occur several days after exposure.

    Inhalation; Skin Exposure

    ____ of anthrax has a very high mortality rate, while ____ to anthrax has a high rate of survival.

    Smallpox

    ____ is a contagious infectious disease that can be transmitted by prolonged face- to-face contact with an infected person, direct contact with infected bodily fluids, and direct contact with infected objects such as clothes. After an incubation period of seven to seventeen days, symptoms such as a pox-like rash, raised bumps, fever, muscle rigidity, shivering, malaise, headaches, and vomiting occur.

    Ricin

    ____ is a highly toxic poison found in seeds of the castor bean plant. The primary routes of exposure to it are ingestion and inhalation. When it is ingested, symptoms begin within a few hours; they include abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea.

    Ricin

    When a person inhales ____, symptoms begin 18-24 hours after exposure and include fever, chest tightness, cough, nausea, and joint pain. Severe respiratory distress and death can occur in 36-72 hours.

    Botulinum (botulism)

    ____ is extremely toxic. Weaponized forms of it can be introduced to the body through ingestion, inhalation, or absorption. Symptoms include difficulty seeing, speaking, and swallowing and having double vision, drooping eyelids, slurred speech, dry mouth, and muscle weakness. These symptoms occur within 12 to 80 hours of exposure.

    Dirty Bombs

    ____ are traditional bombs with radioactive materials loaded into the casing. They are not considered nuclear weapons because they do not contain the same explosive power and their radiation is preloaded, whereas nuclear weapons create radioactivity upon detonation.

    Radiation Dispersal Devices

    Dirty bombs are also known as ___.

    Casing; Detonation

    Dirty bombs require a ___ and ___ mechanism, these pieces may be present at the scene of an explosion.

    Dirty Bombs

    ___ are primarily intended to inflict psychological panic more than physical harm.

    Nuclear Weapon

    A ___ derives its destructive power from an uncontrolled nuclear reaction.

    Improvised Explosive Device (IED)

    An ___ is a homemade bomb constructed and deployed in ways other than conventional military action and can be made from commercially available materials.

    Mail Bombs

    ___ are a special class of suspicious items. These could be delivered by the United States Postal Service, a commercial delivery service, or by hand.

    Vehicle-borne Improvised Explosive Device (VBIED)

    A motor vehicle used as a bomb is referred to as a ___. They can be very powerful and dangerous. They are capable of carrying extremely large amounts of explosives.

    Incendiary Devices

    ___ are designed to start fires, destroy property, and harm people.

    3

    Incendiary devices consist of a minimum of ___ components.

    The ignition source; The combustible filler material; A housing/container

    The components of incendiary devices are ___, ___, and ___.

    ...

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