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90 True/False questions

  1. 61. What are HATS? Define and spell out acronym.telecommunication devices for the deaf, text telephones that attach to landline telephones.

          

  2. 38. Situationaladjectives describe nouns not verbs

          

  3. *19. Vowels are greater in intensity than consonantsTrue or False

          

  4. 86. List the variables that were the most significant predictors of daily hearing aid use time, per parent reportmicrophone, amplifier, receiver, batteries

          

  5. 84. What is functional gain and why is it unreliable for hearing aid verification?energy demands of the HA, size of the battery, hours of HA use, and conservation efforts by HA user

          

  6. *52. When considering lexical factors that affect speech perception, what does word frequency mean?open set because number of alternatives is theoretically unlimited

          

  7. *34. Correct recognition of /s/ is related to hearing sensitivity above what frequency?a) 500 Hz
    b) 1000 Hz
    c) 2000 Hz
    d) 4000 Hz

          

  8. *3. "What are the benefits and risks to the person related to service provision and do the benefits warrant the risk?" This Is an example ofa. Scientific reasoning
    b. Narrative reasoning
    c. Pragmatic reasoning
    d. Ethical reasoning

          

  9. 58. According to the survey, what are the 3 most commonly used speech perception measures with preschoolers?24%

          

  10. 15. Name three professionals who might provide AR services to a child with a hearing loss.Age of the child, flexibility

          

  11. 74. What are TDD? Define and spell out acronymdeafness acquired while learning language

          

  12. 40. What are two general objectives for auditory training with adults?improved SNR

          

  13. *1. Clinical reasoning is a way of explaining...a. Patient preferences regarding therapy
    b. The best available evidence for therapy effectiveness
    c. The clinician's knowledge that influences therapy choices and clinical decision making
    d. The state of an individual's health.

          

  14. 85. Open-fit BTE hearing aids allow (low/mid-to-high) frequencies to be delivered via the normal pathway while (low/mid-to-high) frequencies are amplifiedlow/mid to high

          

  15. 75. How does the Telephone Relay Service work?TDD user sends a message to a relay operator, who calls the landline user with the message

          

  16. *30. For vowels, the frequency of F1 indicates tongue height or mouth opening.True or False

          

  17. 77. What is the benefit of using directional microphones?improved SNR

          

  18. *64. What situation are telecoils primarily useful for?TDD user sends a message to a relay operator, who calls the landline user with the message

          

  19. *12. Under the ICF classification system, impairment refers to problems withTrue or False

          

  20. 66. FM systems can range in price from $_____ to $_____.microphone, amplifier, receiver, batteries

          

  21. *39. After World War II, the primary focus of auditory training was to improve the speech and language development of children with severe-profound hearing loss.a) Maximize use of auditory and related cues to perceive speech
    b) Adjustment/orientation to assistive devices

          

  22. *51. What is the primary disadvantage of administering a recorded single word recognition test in quiet in a sound booth?improved SNR

          

  23. *46. What does it mean for a test to be ecologically valid?a. Consistent across examiners and test conditions
    b. Comparable to "real world" contexts
    c. Environmentally friendly
    d. Age appropriate

          

  24. 6. Describe what the C represents for the CORECORE: communication status

          

  25. 76. What is the difference between an omnidirectional and directional microphone?improved SNR

          

  26. *73. US federal law states that all televisions are required to have closed captioningenergy demands of the HA, size of the battery, hours of HA use, and conservation efforts by HA user

          

  27. 17. The frequency range of human hearing is from _________ Hz to _________ Hz20 to 20,000

          

  28. *71. The Americans with Disabilities Act permits individuals with hearing dogs access to all public spaces.a. Bluetooth
    b. Wifi
    c. Facetime
    d. Skype

          

  29. 44. What are the 6 phonemes used in the Ling six sound test?intonation, rhythm, stress and pitch

          

  30. *65. What kind of signal do FM systems operate witha. Amplitude modulated radio waves
    b. Frequency modulated radio waves
    c. Infrared waves
    d. Ultrasonic waves

          

  31. 13. If a therapist strives to understand each patient's "story" or problem, he/she is engaging in what type of reasoning according to the ICF model?True or False

          

  32. *90. What variable predicted the amount of time difference between datalogging and parent report of hearing aid?a. maternal education level
    b. Test site
    c. degree of hearing loss
    d. age of the child

          

  33. 55. Individuals with unilateral hearing loss perform more poorly on speech perception tests when speech is directed towards the _________ ear and noise is directed towards the _______ ear.24%

          

  34. 23. What are the 4 suprasegmental features of speech?intonation, rhythm, stress and pitch

          

  35. 45. Which factor is more important to consider when selecting a pediatric speech perception measure, vocabulary age or chronological age?24%

          

  36. 28. List two acoustic cues for manner of articulation in nasal consonantsgeneral decrease in intensity and additional resonance around 500 Hz

          

  37. *80. Why are ITEs/CICs a bad option for young children?a. Their ears are constantly growing, requiring frequent changes in earmolds
    b. Difficult to access volume control
    c. Very small, so easy to lose
    d. All of the above

          

  38. *8. Persons with limited amount of hearing loss are referred to asa. hearing impaired
    b. DEAF
    c. hard of hearing
    d. deaf

          

  39. 60. What is a major limitation of the Munoz et al. study?deafness acquired while learning language

          

  40. 33. For people with hearing loss, do errors occur more often with place of articulation or manner of articulation?Place

          

  41. *24. Vowel Recognitionadjectives describe nouns not verbs

          

  42. 31. Speech contains energy from approximately _________ to __________ Hz20 to 20,000

          

  43. 67. Name two external sound sources that Direct Audio Input connect to, via hearing aids.computers and TVs

          

  44. 78. Name the four main parts of a hearing aid.gives a report of the average number of hours of daily use

          

  45. *68. Infrared systems are ideal for amphitheaters and outdoor concerts because they permit an unlimited number of receiversa. Reliable
    b. Sensitive to differences between test conditions
    c. Correlates with speech perception in the real world
    d. All of the above

          

  46. *81. In general, two hearing aids are better than one.True or False

          

  47. *82. It is best to rely on hearing aid manufacturers' recommendations when selecting different features because these features are based on evidence-based research.True or False

          

  48. 11. A person's ability to judge whether two speech stimuli are the same or different is calleda. hearing impaired
    b. DEAF
    c. hard of hearing
    d. deaf

          

  49. 69. Describe how an audio loop system worksCARE: counseling and psychosocial

          

  50. *87. What age group had the most challenges in achieving consistent hearing aid use?a. Infants
    b. Preschoolers
    c. 5-6 year olds
    d. 7-8 year olds

          

  51. 18. The average level of conversational speech at 1 meter from the speaker is ___ dB SPL1000 Hz

          

  52. *5. Limiting the negative effects of hearing loss on the patient's significant others is part of aural rehabilitation.True or False

          

  53. 10. What does perilingual onset refer to?deafness acquired while learning language

          

  54. *35. Speech understanding can be accurately predicted on the basis of an audiogram alonelow response rate

          

  55. 36. Syntacticadjectives describe nouns not verbs

          

  56. 48. What does it mean to administer a speech perception measure via "live voice"?the clinician is saying the words through the mic of the audiometer, or face to face with the client

          

  57. 20. The greatest amount of energy in speech is found at frequencies below ____.1000 Hz

          

  58. 79. List four factors that influence the life of hearing aid batteriesenergy demands of the HA, size of the battery, hours of HA use, and conservation efforts by HA user

          

  59. *88. What was the most prevalent challenge in getting children to wear hearing aids, according to parents?a. Breaks in routine
    b. Loud events
    c. child state
    d. equipment issues

          

  60. 7. Describe what the C represents for the CAREWire surrounds seating area, microphone signal is transmitted to the wire that is picked up by HA telecoil.

          

  61. 14. As an SLP or AUD, I'm very concerned with my client's ability to have access to support services for his/her disability. In considering this problem, I'm using what type of reasoning?Pragmatic

          

  62. *72. Medical clearance from a physician is required to obtain HATS.a. Patient preferences regarding therapy
    b. The best available evidence for therapy effectiveness
    c. The clinician's knowledge that influences therapy choices and clinical decision making
    d. The state of an individual's health.

          

  63. *49. It is more reliable to administer speech perception via "live voice" than recorded, because your clients will pay better attention to you.True or False

          

  64. *4. Diagnostic reasoning may occur prior to meeting a patient/clienta. Patient preferences regarding therapy
    b. The best available evidence for therapy effectiveness
    c. The clinician's knowledge that influences therapy choices and clinical decision making
    d. The state of an individual's health.

          

  65. *2. Patient activities and participation are influenced bya. Restrictions and limitations of a health condition
    b. Personal factors
    c. Environmental factors
    d. All of the above

          

  66. *25. An important acoustic cue for diphthongs is the rate of change in formant frequenciesFrequency of the most intense portion of the burst and the F2 transition

          

  67. 41. What are four objectives for auditory training with children?a) Maximize use of auditory and related cues to perceive speech
    b) Adjustment/orientation to assistive devices

          

  68. 57. What percentage of survey respondents reported never using aided speech perception testing with preschoolers?PBK, WIP, NUCHIPS

          

  69. 43. What response format is more challenging in speech perception measures - open or closed-set - and why?a. Reliable
    b. Sensitive to differences between test conditions
    c. Correlates with speech perception in the real world
    d. All of the above

          

  70. *32. Perception of vowels is not affected in persons with severe-to-profound hearing loss.True or false

          

  71. 62 .What is the difference between HATS and ALDs?telecommunication devices for the deaf, text telephones that attach to landline telephones.

          

  72. *47. What are qualities of ideal speech perception tests?telecommunication devices for the deaf, text telephones that attach to landline telephones.

          

  73. 21. Which class of speech sounds are most important for determining the intelligibility of speech: vowels or consonants?consonants

          

  74. 54. According to the Neighborhood Activation Model, words that are (high/low) in word frequency and (high/low) in neighborhood density that the best speech intelligibility. Choose the correct option in each case.High/Low

          

  75. *83. What kind of measurement is used to determine the output of the hearing aid at the ear drum at various input levelsa. Real ear
    b. Functional gain
    c. Manufacturer's specifications
    d. Speech perception tests

          

  76. *16. The goal of auditory training is to help an individual maximize the use of his/her residual hearing to improve communication.True or False

          

  77. *27. /r/ and /l/ are distinguished by F2.True or False

          

  78. 50. Name two reasons an audiologist might prefer to use live voice test administrationAge of the child, flexibility

          

  79. *70. What recent technological advances allow individuals with hearing loss to access their hearing aids while talking on cell phones?True or False

          

  80. *63. Hardwire devices are rarely used by people with hearing loss because of their prohibitive cost.a. Bluetooth
    b. Wifi
    c. Facetime
    d. Skype

          

  81. 53. What does neighborhood density mean?Number of words that can be created by adding, subtracting, or substituting a phoneme within a target word or number of phonetically similar words

          

  82. 59. Which of these three measures is an example of an open-set test?intonation, rhythm, stress and pitch

          

  83. 37. Semanticwords in a sense are related to each other

          

  84. 89. What is data logginglanguage takes place in a social context

          

  85. *26. What acoustic cue occurs when a vowel precedes or follows a consonant, resulting in a change in resonance?Frequency of the most intense portion of the burst and the F2 transition

          

  86. *9. According to Schow and Nerbonne, children and adults with mild hearing loss have a PTA of 26-40 dB HLTrue or False

          

  87. 42. What does a signal to noise ratio (SNR) of 0 dB mean? + 5 dB SNR? -5 dB SNR?a) 0 means signal and noise are the same level
    b) +5 means signal is 5 dB louder than the noise
    c) -5 means noise is 5 dB louder than the signal

          

  88. 22. What are the five distinction features associated with consonant production, based on Miller and Nicely's classification system?voicing, nasality, affrication, duration, place of articulation

          

  89. 29. List two acoustic cues for place of articulation in a stop consonantFrequency of the most intense portion of the burst and the F2 transition

          

  90. 56. What is a closed-set speech perception measure?items are presented from a limited number of options