Rehab Aud Question Sets 1-6 flashcards |

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*1. Clinical reasoning is a way of explaining...

a. Patient preferences regarding therapy
b. The best available evidence for therapy effectiveness
c. The clinician's knowledge that influences therapy choices and clinical decision making
d. The state of an individual's health.

*2. Patient activities and participation are influenced by

a. Restrictions and limitations of a health condition
b. Personal factors
c. Environmental factors
d. All of the above

*3. "What are the benefits and risks to the person related to service provision and do the benefits warrant the risk?" This Is an example of

a. Scientific reasoning
b. Narrative reasoning
c. Pragmatic reasoning
d. Ethical reasoning

*4. Diagnostic reasoning may occur prior to meeting a patient/client

True or False

*5. Limiting the negative effects of hearing loss on the patient's significant others is part of aural rehabilitation.

True or False

6. Describe what the C represents for the CORE

CORE: communication status

7. Describe what the C represents for the CARE

CARE: counseling and psychosocial

*8. Persons with limited amount of hearing loss are referred to as

a. hearing impaired
c. hard of hearing
d. deaf

*9. According to Schow and Nerbonne, children and adults with mild hearing loss have a PTA of 26-40 dB HL

True or False

10. What does perilingual onset refer to?

deafness acquired while learning language

11. A person's ability to judge whether two speech stimuli are the same or different is called


*12. Under the ICF classification system, impairment refers to problems with

a. environmental factors
b. activity levels
c. body structure or function
d. personal issues
e. all of the above

13. If a therapist strives to understand each patient's "story" or problem, he/she is engaging in what type of reasoning according to the ICF model?

Narrative reasoning

14. As an SLP or AUD, I'm very concerned with my client's ability to have access to support services for his/her disability. In considering this problem, I'm using what type of reasoning?


15. Name three professionals who might provide AR services to a child with a hearing loss.

audiologist, speech/language pathologist, teacher of the deaf

*16. The goal of auditory training is to help an individual maximize the use of his/her residual hearing to improve communication.

True or False

17. The frequency range of human hearing is from _________ Hz to _________ Hz

20 to 20,000

18. The average level of conversational speech at 1 meter from the speaker is ___ dB SPL


*19. Vowels are greater in intensity than consonants

True or False

20. The greatest amount of energy in speech is found at frequencies below ____.

1000 Hz

21. Which class of speech sounds are most important for determining the intelligibility of speech: vowels or consonants?


22. What are the five distinction features associated with consonant production, based on Miller and Nicely's classification system?

voicing, nasality, affrication, duration, place of articulation

23. What are the 4 suprasegmental features of speech?

intonation, rhythm, stress and pitch

*24. Vowel Recognition

a. Is better for familiar than unfamiliar speakers
b. Depends on knowing how a speaker produces the point vowels
c. Is more accurate for vowels in context than for vowels in isolation
d. Is based on the absolute formant frequency of the vowel in a CVC context

*25. An important acoustic cue for diphthongs is the rate of change in formant frequencies

True or False

*26. What acoustic cue occurs when a vowel precedes or follows a consonant, resulting in a change in resonance?

a. Formant transition
b. Voicing
c. Nasality
d. Formant frequency

*27. /r/ and /l/ are distinguished by F2.

True or False

28. List two acoustic cues for manner of articulation in nasal consonants

general decrease in intensity and additional resonance around 500 Hz

29. List two acoustic cues for place of articulation in a stop consonant

Frequency of the most intense portion of the burst and the F2 transition

*30. For vowels, the frequency of F1 indicates tongue height or mouth opening.

True or False

31. Speech contains energy from approximately _________ to __________ Hz

50 to 10000

*32. Perception of vowels is not affected in persons with severe-to-profound hearing loss.

True or false

33. For people with hearing loss, do errors occur more often with place of articulation or manner of articulation?


*34. Correct recognition of /s/ is related to hearing sensitivity above what frequency?

a) 500 Hz
b) 1000 Hz
c) 2000 Hz
d) 4000 Hz

*35. Speech understanding can be accurately predicted on the basis of an audiogram alone

True or False

36. Syntactic

adjectives describe nouns not verbs

37. Semantic

words in a sense are related to each other

38. Situational

language takes place in a social context

*39. After World War II, the primary focus of auditory training was to improve the speech and language development of children with severe-profound hearing loss.

True or False

40. What are two general objectives for auditory training with adults?

a) Maximize use of auditory and related cues to perceive speech
b) Adjustment/orientation to assistive devices

41. What are four objectives for auditory training with children?

a) Awareness of sound
b) Gross discrimination
c) Broad discrimination among speech patterns
d) Finer discrimination for speech

42. What does a signal to noise ratio (SNR) of 0 dB mean? + 5 dB SNR? -5 dB SNR?

a) 0 means signal and noise are the same level
b) +5 means signal is 5 dB louder than the noise
c) -5 means noise is 5 dB louder than the signal

43. What response format is more challenging in speech perception measures - open or closed-set - and why?

open set because number of alternatives is theoretically unlimited

44. What are the 6 phonemes used in the Ling six sound test?

sh, s, m, ah, oo, ee

45. Which factor is more important to consider when selecting a pediatric speech perception measure, vocabulary age or chronological age?

vocab age

*46. What does it mean for a test to be ecologically valid?

a. Consistent across examiners and test conditions
b. Comparable to "real world" contexts
c. Environmentally friendly
d. Age appropriate

*47. What are qualities of ideal speech perception tests?

a. Reliable
b. Sensitive to differences between test conditions
c. Correlates with speech perception in the real world
d. All of the above

48. What does it mean to administer a speech perception measure via "live voice"?

the clinician is saying the words through the mic of the audiometer, or face to face with the client

*49. It is more reliable to administer speech perception via "live voice" than recorded, because your clients will pay better attention to you.

True or False

50. Name two reasons an audiologist might prefer to use live voice test administration

Age of the child, flexibility

*51. What is the primary disadvantage of administering a recorded single word recognition test in quiet in a sound booth?

a. Poor ecological validity
b. Challenging to maintain the patient's attention
c. Poor sensitivity
d. Poor specificity

*52. When considering lexical factors that affect speech perception, what does word frequency mean?

a. Pitch properties of the word
b. How often a word occurs in the language
c. How many phonetically similar neighbors are activated
d. Audibility of the word

53. What does neighborhood density mean?

Number of words that can be created by adding, subtracting, or substituting a phoneme within a target word or number of phonetically similar words

54. According to the Neighborhood Activation Model, words that are (high/low) in word frequency and (high/low) in neighborhood density that the best speech intelligibility. Choose the correct option in each case.


55. Individuals with unilateral hearing loss perform more poorly on speech perception tests when speech is directed towards the _________ ear and noise is directed towards the _______ ear.


56. What is a closed-set speech perception measure?

items are presented from a limited number of options

57. What percentage of survey respondents reported never using aided speech perception testing with preschoolers?


58. According to the survey, what are the 3 most commonly used speech perception measures with preschoolers?


59. Which of these three measures is an example of an open-set test?


60. What is a major limitation of the Munoz et al. study?

low response rate

61. What are HATS? Define and spell out acronym.

Hearing Assistive Technology Systems - technology that provides auditory information in ways a person with hearing loss can use

62 .What is the difference between HATS and ALDs?

HATs is broader term encompassing ALDs and alerting devices. ALDs help people in specific situations

*63. Hardwire devices are rarely used by people with hearing loss because of their prohibitive cost.

True or False

*64. What situation are telecoils primarily useful for?

a. Radio
b. Football games
c. Telephone
d. Car

*65. What kind of signal do FM systems operate with

a. Amplitude modulated radio waves
b. Frequency modulated radio waves
c. Infrared waves
d. Ultrasonic waves

66. FM systems can range in price from $_____ to $_____.

100 to 1000

67. Name two external sound sources that Direct Audio Input connect to, via hearing aids.

computers and TVs

*68. Infrared systems are ideal for amphitheaters and outdoor concerts because they permit an unlimited number of receivers

True or False

69. Describe how an audio loop system works

Wire surrounds seating area, microphone signal is transmitted to the wire that is picked up by HA telecoil.

*70. What recent technological advances allow individuals with hearing loss to access their hearing aids while talking on cell phones?

a. Bluetooth
b. Wifi
c. Facetime
d. Skype

*71. The Americans with Disabilities Act permits individuals with hearing dogs access to all public spaces.

True or False

*72. Medical clearance from a physician is required to obtain HATS.

True or False

*73. US federal law states that all televisions are required to have closed captioning

True or False

74. What are TDD? Define and spell out acronym

telecommunication devices for the deaf, text telephones that attach to landline telephones.

75. How does the Telephone Relay Service work?

TDD user sends a message to a relay operator, who calls the landline user with the message

76. What is the difference between an omnidirectional and directional microphone?

omni sensitive to sound coming from all directions, directional permit varying sensitivity coming from a given direction

77. What is the benefit of using directional microphones?

improved SNR

78. Name the four main parts of a hearing aid.

microphone, amplifier, receiver, batteries

79. List four factors that influence the life of hearing aid batteries

energy demands of the HA, size of the battery, hours of HA use, and conservation efforts by HA user

*80. Why are ITEs/CICs a bad option for young children?

a. Their ears are constantly growing, requiring frequent changes in earmolds
b. Difficult to access volume control
c. Very small, so easy to lose
d. All of the above

*81. In general, two hearing aids are better than one.

True or False

*82. It is best to rely on hearing aid manufacturers' recommendations when selecting different features because these features are based on evidence-based research.

True or False

*83. What kind of measurement is used to determine the output of the hearing aid at the ear drum at various input levels

a. Real ear
b. Functional gain
c. Manufacturer's specifications
d. Speech perception tests

84. What is functional gain and why is it unreliable for hearing aid verification?

aided and unaided threshold measurements; only tell about the gain of the HA at very soft input levels

85. Open-fit BTE hearing aids allow (low/mid-to-high) frequencies to be delivered via the normal pathway while (low/mid-to-high) frequencies are amplified

low/mid to high

86. List the variables that were the most significant predictors of daily hearing aid use time, per parent report

maternal education level, age, degree of hearing loss, and test site

*87. What age group had the most challenges in achieving consistent hearing aid use?

a. Infants
b. Preschoolers
c. 5-6 year olds
d. 7-8 year olds

*88. What was the most prevalent challenge in getting children to wear hearing aids, according to parents?

a. Breaks in routine
b. Loud events
c. child state
d. equipment issues

89. What is data logging

gives a report of the average number of hours of daily use

*90. What variable predicted the amount of time difference between datalogging and parent report of hearing aid?

a. maternal education level
b. Test site
c. degree of hearing loss
d. age of the child

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